Boeing 777 Practice Exam B

1 / 124

What is the maximum allowable crosswind for Cat 2 and Cat 3 autoland operations?

30 knots

25 knots

40 knots

15 knots

2 / 124

From which page is the estimated fuel remaining at destination obtained?

RTE LEGS page 1

ROUTE page 1

PROGRESS page 1 and CRZ page

APPROACH REF page

3 / 124

On which page would you prevent the FMC from using VOR/DME updating?

POS page 2

Nav Data

Progress page 2

Nav Radio

4 / 124

What must be typed in the scratchpad to create a new waypoint located 15 miles along the 275 deg. radial from the Belfast (BEL) VOR?

BEL275/15

275BEL/15

BEL27515

275/15BEL

5 / 124

During a VNAV climb what speed is normally commanded by the FMC above speed transition altitude?

ECON climb speed

V2 + 100 knots

240 knots

250 knots

6 / 124

On which page would you enable/disable use of GPS for navigation?

Nav Data

Pos Ref

Approach Ref

7 / 124

To where is data entered on the right FMS-CDU sent?

The FMC selected by the FMC Master switch only

The Left FMC only

The Right FMC only

Both FMCs

8 / 124

How is a message in the scratchpad cleared?

Pressing the CLR key

By pressing the DEL key momentarily

By pressing and holding the DEL key

By pressing CANC on the Display Select Panel

9 / 124

You are currently looking at Legs page 5 to 7. Which page will be displayed if you now press the Legs button?

Legs page 7

Legs page 1

Init/Ref Index

Legs page 6

10 / 124

What is the indication of a SELCAL call to the aircraft?

A High/Low chime, EICAS 'SELCAL' message, and an Audio Control Panel CALL light

Only the appropriate CALL light illuminating on the transmitter select switch

An EICAS 'SELCAL' message only

A CALL light flashing on the overhead panel

11 / 124

Your PFD is displaying an amber LDG ALT flag. When will this be removed?

After entry of the Zero Fuel Weight

When the Route in the FMC is activated

When the Runway is chosen on the Approach Ref page

After first engine start

12 / 124

How is the Caution beeper silenced?

By pressing the Master Caution light

Automatically after four beeps

By pressing the CANC/RCL switch

Only when the condition no longer exists

13 / 124

When are the Master Caution lights and beeper inhibited?

If the aircraft is on the ground with the parking brake set

If one engine is shut down in flight

If the aircraft ground speed exceeds 65 knots

When both Fuel Control Switches are at Cut-off and the aircraft is on the ground

14 / 124

On the PFD, how will a Vertical Speed of 500ft/min up be shown?

Needle pointing upwards halfway to the 'I' mark and no digits

Needle pointing upwards halfway to the 'I' mark, and '500' below the VS display

Needle pointing downwards halfway to the 'I' mark, and no digits

Needle pointing upwards halfway to the 'I' mark, and '500' above the VS display

15 / 124

What happens to primary engine indications if the upper display unit fails?

They automatically transfer to the right hand PFD

They are lost

They appear on the lower screen

They appear on the left PFD

16 / 124

Which display units are normally controlled by the Display Select Panel?

The inboard display unit only

The upper and lower

The outboards and inboards

The inboards and lower centre

17 / 124

The ND is in Map Mode, with Airports de-selected. Which airport(s) are displayed?

The one nominated Alternate Airport

All the Alternate Airports

None

The nearest Airport

18 / 124

You are landing a 777 in Cat 3 weather on a category (L) runway. After touchdown should you disengage the autopilot?

Yes, but use Flight Director to maintain rollout guidance

Yes, as rollout guidance is not assured

Yes, but you must switch on the PVD

19 / 124

At 1500R on an automatic approach, LAND 2 is annunciated. What visual reference would you need at decision height?

3 consecutive lights without a lateral element

Depends on the lighting system

1 light

3 consecutive lights including a lateral element

20 / 124

Visual reference is lost below the decision height on a 777 Cat 3a approach. What should you do?

Go around at 14 feet

Hand over control and try to regain the reference

Carry on and land

Go-around

21 / 124

For a reported RVR of 75 metres and a centreline light spacing of 15m, what is the minimum number of centreline lights you would be able to see?

22 / 124

What is the decision reference for Cat 2 and 3 operations?

QFE

QNH

Radio altitude

Barometric altitude

23 / 124

What colour are taxiway stopbar lights?

Green

Red

Green and yellow

Red and yellow

24 / 124

For Cat 3b operations a pilot may not continue an approach below the decision height unless he has which of the following in sight?

Touch down zone light

Runway edge light

Centreline light

Side row barrette

25 / 124

Where can the RVR requirements for a PVD assisted take off be found?

FCOM Volume 1 Supplementary Procedures

FCOM Volume 1 Standard Sector

CARD or relevant Performance Manual page )

Standard 150m

26 / 124

Where are Time Critical Warnings displayed?

On the CDU

On the ND

On the PFD

On the EICAS display

27 / 124

How can you differentiate between Caution and Advisory messages?

Only Advisories show on the EICAS display

Cautions are amber, Advisories are white

Cautions are red, Advisories are amber

Advisories have no associated aural

28 / 124

An EICAS Caution message is at the top of the list of Caution/Advisory messages? What does this mean?

It has the highest priority of the Caution alerts

It is the most recent message

It is the first to have appeared

It has the lowest priority of the Caution alerts

29 / 124

When will the Ram Air Turbine (RAT) automatically deploy?

If all four TRU's fail in flight

If both AC transfer buses lose power in flight (FCOM 2 6.20.14)

If both main AC buses lose power in flight

The RAT can only be deployed manually

30 / 124

What electrical supply(s) is required to feed the entire aeroplane AC electrical load without load shedding?

APU power OR an IDG

Primary EXT power

Primary EXT power with APU power

Secondary EXT power

31 / 124

If both Transfer buses are lost, what is the first backup source to power the captain's flight instrument bus?

The battery

The RAT

The AC standby bus

The PMGs

32 / 124

The main battery provides standby power to the following:

The hot battery bus, the battery bus, captain's flight instrument bus, standby inverter

The hot battery bus, the battery bus, the left transfer bus, F/O's flight instrument bus, standby inverter

The hot battery bus, the battery bus, captain's flight instrument bus, the left transfer bus, standby inverter

The hot battery bus, the battery bus, captain's flight instrument bus, F/O's flight instrument bus, standby inverter

33 / 124

When will a backup generator power one or both transfer buses?

If the APU is unserviceable, but both IDGs are serviceable

If one of the IDGs fails with the APU serviceable

When power to one or both AC main buses is lost

When LOC is selected on the autopilot MCP

34 / 124

How is the fuel freeze temperature entered?

By maintenance during aircraft fuelling

By using a selector on the overhead fuel panel

Through the FMS CDU

As a default value of -49 degrees C

35 / 124

When is each centre tank pump switch PRESS light inhibited?

When the centre pumps are operating

When the switch is selected to OFF

When the centre tank contains less than 180kgs of fuel

When the L or R main tank pumps are operating

36 / 124

What is normally used for the thrust setting parameter on GE90 powered aircraft?

Combined N1 and N2

EPR

37 / 124

During climb with the EECs in normal mode, what will happen if the thrust levers are manually positioned forward?

The engines will exceed the maximum rated thrust limit

The engines will produce maximum rated thrust

The engine fuel valve will be fully open

The engines will produce the reference thrust value shown on the EICAS display.

38 / 124

Why is it necessary to monitor engine oil pressure during an autostart?

Because the autostart system has a history of aborting the start too late for oil parameter anomalies

To ensure the oil pressure does not rise until the N2 speed reaches 30%

Because the autostart system will not abort the start for oil parameter anomalies

To ensure the oil pressure does not rise until the N1 speed reaches 30$

39 / 124

If the source of engine vibration is unknown, the Secondary Engine display will show what indication?

Indications in amber

Both N1 and N2 together

Only a pointer for each engine

40 / 124

How is APPROACH idle selected?

Automatically if that engine bleed air switch is OFF

Automatically with flap selection of 25 degrees or more

If a hydraulic pump fails with flap UP

Manually adjusted to 5% above normal idle

41 / 124

What indications provide warning of a 'Stuck On' VHF/HF transmitter?

An EICAS 'RADIO TRANSMIT' message

A light on the Audio Control Panel

A light on the Radio Tuning Panel

A loud tone during receive mode

42 / 124

When may the maximum manoeuvring speed indication be displayed on the PFD?

When operating at low altitude at relatively high gross weights

When operating at high altitude at relatively high gross weights

When operating at low altitude at relatively low gross weights

When operating at high altitude at relatively low gross weights

43 / 124

In which form is Vertical Speed displayed on the PFD?

Both analogue, and digital when greater than 400ft/min

Analogue and digital when less than 400ft/min

Only digital

Only analogue

44 / 124

What form does the slip indicator take?

Box against a pointer

No slip indicator is provided

Pointer against a scale

Ball in a tube

45 / 124

With the Air Data/Attitude source switches in the ALTN position

Captains air data is from all pitot/static systems through the SAARU

F/Os air data is from the right pitot/static system through the SAARU

F/Os air data is from all pilot/static systems through the ADIRU

Captains air data is from the right pilot/static system through the SAARU

46 / 124

What is the maximum range at which weather radar turbulence returns can be displayed?

Dependent upon gain selection

80mm

40mm

160mm

47 / 124

What comprises the ATC transponder system?

A single transponder and control panel

Three transponders controlled by separate panels

Two transponders controlled by separate panels

Two transponders controlled by a single panel

48 / 124

What does the PFD autothrottle annunciation display when the TO/GA switch is pressed once to carry out a go-around?

THR REF.

THR

TO/GA

SPD

49 / 124

During climb with no altitude constraints, what happens if the altitude selector on the MCP is pushed with the altitude window set above the FMC cruise altitude?

Nothing

The FMC cruise altitude remains the same until the aircraft reaches it, at which point the FMC cruise altitude is updated automatically and the aircraft continues to climb

The FMC cruise altitude is deleted and requires re-entering via the CDU

The FMC cruise altitude is changed to the altitude window altitude

50 / 124

How can VNAV be disengaged?

By capturing the glideslope after APP has been selected

By pressing the VNAV switch (mentioned in FCOM2 4.10.8 but go with other)

By pushing the LAS/MACH selector knob

By selecting auto-throttle THR mode

51 / 124

When is the go-around function of TO/GA mode armed?

When G/S is armed

If LOC capture occurs

As 1,500ft RA is passed on the descent

When the flaps are not retracted

52 / 124

What is the lowest altitude at which you can disengage the approach made by pushing the APP switch a second time?

2500 feet RA

500 feet RA

1000 feet RA

1500 feet RA

53 / 124

In which mode will the autothrottle engage when the TO/GA switch is pushed for take-off?

THR REF.

THR

SPD

HOLD

54 / 124

What does the PFD autothrottle annunciation display during a FLCH climb?

THR REF

TO/GA

THR

SPD

55 / 124

When using the DESCEND NOW feature before top-of-descent, what will be the initial autothrottle mode?

IDLE

HOLD

THR

THR REF

56 / 124

In flight, what happens if the Centre hydraulic system quantity is sensed to be low?

Main gear steering reverts to cable operation

Flight controls are isolated from the Centre system and remain operable

Left thrust reverser ceases to operate

Reserve brakes are isolated from the Centre system and remain operable

57 / 124

When will the RAT deploy automatically?

If both AC Transfer buses are unpowered

When the Centre hydraulic system pressure is low

If both Back-up generators fail

If both engine driven hydraulic pumps fail

58 / 124

What effect does the landing gear lever have on Alternate gear extension?

The lever lock must be removed, before alternate selection

It must be in the DN position

It cannot be raised after extension

It may be in any position

59 / 124

When steering the aircraft using rudder pedals only, at what point will main gear steering activate?

Main gear steering will not operate when using rudder pedals only

After 7° of nose wheel rotation

After 13° of nose wheel rotation

After 8° of nose wheel rotation

60 / 124

What happens when the flight controls are operating in the Secondary mode?

The PFCs are disconnected

Control PCUs are operated directly by the ACEs

The autopilot is not available

Thrust Asymmetry protection remains available

61 / 124

With the aircraft in landing configuration and 'SLATS PRIMARY FAIL' being the only message displayed, which of the following is available?

Flap Load relief only

Neither flap nor slat load relief

Slat load relief only

Both flap and slat load relief

62 / 124

The alternate pitch trim levers will, if operated, do which of the following?

Blank the Stabilizer Position Indicator

Have a lower priority than control wheel pitch trim commands

Move the stabilizer via control cables and the Stab Trim Control Module

Disengage the autopilot

63 / 124

Where are the aileron trim indicators?

Aft aisle stand

Control wheel/column

Flight control synoptic

Control stand

64 / 124

How can Thrust Asymmetry Compensation (TAC) be disconnected?

Only if trim inputs are not displayed on the rudder trim indicator

By opposing rudder application

By the Rudder Manual Trim Cancel switch

By the switch on the overhead panel

65 / 124

During extension, in which mode(s) do slat movements precede flap movements?

Primary only

Secondary and Alternate only

All three modes

Primary and Secondary only

66 / 124

Prior to the first engine start, how should the engine bleed switches be configured?

Both OFF

Both ON

Only the engine to be started should be ON

Only the engine to be started should be OFF

67 / 124

When will the pack shut down, if operating in 'Standby Cooling Mode'?

Low altitude with low temperature

Low altitude with high temperature

High altitude with low temperature

High altitude with high temperature

68 / 124

Where is the temperature level for each individual zone set?

At door 3L

On the flight deck overhead panel

At the cabin management panel

In each passenger zone

69 / 124

When is bleed air supplied by the high-pressure section of the engine?

On the ground only

Descent and other low power setting operations

When take-off power is set

When Anti-Ice selected ON

70 / 124

During normal operation, where does the outflow take place?

Through both valves equally

Always through the forward valve as the aft valve is normally closed

Mostly through the forward valve

Mostly through the aft valve

71 / 124

Where does landing altitude barometric pressure correction come from?

The F/O's altimeter setting

The ADIRU

The captain's altimeter setting

The SAARU

72 / 124

In automatic mode, where is the landing altitude for the pressurisation system taken from?

The EFIS control panel

The FMC

The selector on the overhead panel

The Centre CDU data page

73 / 124

What indications on the EICAS display show that an outflow valve is under manual control?

An 'M' appears at the needle base on the display

MANUAL is displayed under the valve position indicator

The valve position indication turns amber

The 'FWD' or 'AFT' turns green

74 / 124

How is heating supplied for the forward cargo compartment?

A bleed air heating system

Electrical heated floor panels

From the forward equipment ventilation system

A conditioned air supply

75 / 124

How is the bulk cargo compartment heated?

Independent bleed air system

Conditioned air from the packs

Electrical heating elements

Ventilated aft equipment cooling air

76 / 124

When is automatic ice detection inhibited?

With TAT at 10°C or above

Until the aircraft is above 500ft AAL

On the ground

If wing or engine anti-ice is selected OFF

77 / 124

Where is the wing anti-ice annunciation displayed?

On the overhead panel

At the bottom of the PFD

Below the EICAS N1 indication

There is no wing anti-ice annunciation

78 / 124

What does the Engine Fire Extinguisher system consist of?

Two extinguisher bottles for each engine

One extinguisher bottle, which can be discharged into either engine

One extinguisher bottle for each engine

Two extinguisher bottles, which can be discharged into either engine

79 / 124

What does the wheel well fire detection system consist of?

Single detector loop in nose and main wheel wells

Single detector loop in main wheel wells only

Dual detector loops in main gear wells only

Dual detector loops in nose and main wheel wells

80 / 124

What action would you take if the caption 'OFFSCALE' appeared on the ND?

Change from expanded to Centred MAP mode on ND

Increase the ND range on the EFIS control panel

Push the TFC switch on the EFIS control panel

Switch transponder from TA only to TA/RA

81 / 124

Which category or categories of TCAS traffic will generate voice aural alerts?

RA only

All

TA only

RA and TA only

82 / 124

What is the maximum landing tailwind component for a slippery runway?

5 knots

10 knots

25 knots

15 knots

83 / 124

In flight, what would you suspect if the fuel temperature display turned amber?

The fuel temperature is at or below -10°C

The fuel temperature is approaching its maximum

There is a fuel temperature imbalance

The temperature is approaching the freeze temp entered on the FMS CDU

84 / 124

What is maximum crosswind for take-off and landing for a dry runway?

15 knots

30 knots

40 knots

25 knots

85 / 124

What is the maximum Take-off and Landing Altitude?

6,400 feet pressure altitude

8.600 feet pressure altitude

6,600 feet pressure altitude

8,400 feet pressure altitude

86 / 124

What limit protection is retained when the EEC operates in the Hard Alternate mode?

Thrust

Thrust and N1 overspeed

Thrust and N2 overspeed

N1 and N2 overspeed

87 / 124

What must be annunciated to carry out a Cat 3A – (DH below 100 feet but not less than 50 feet) automatic approach and landing?

NO AUTOLAND

AUTOLAND

LAND 3 only

LAND 2 OR LAND 3

88 / 124

In Primary mode, what is the complete flap setting range that the load relief facility is operative?

15 to 30

0 to 30

20 to 30

25 to 30

89 / 124

During taxi for take-off a system malfunction occurs. What would be your considerations regarding the MEL?

Consult the MEL before completing the QRH drill

Consult the MEL after completing the QRH to see if relief is available for continued operation with the fault

The MEL must not be consulted

Consult the MEL for Memo messages only

90 / 124

What is MMO above 30,000 feet to the aircraft ceiling?

0.77 mach

0.79 mach

0.84 mach

0.87 mach

91 / 124

What is the minimum height for engagement of the autopilot after takeoff?

500ft

400ft

200ft

300ft

92 / 124

What is the maximum takeoff and landing tailwind component?

12 knots

15 knots

5 knots

10 knots

93 / 124

What is the Maximum Operating Altitude capability, at LRC, for an aircraft weight of 270,000kgs at 1.3G margin to initial buffet?

34,800ft

32,800ft

36,100ft

33,300ft

94 / 124

After engine failure, what is the level off pressure altitude for an aircraft weight of 260,000kgs at ISA +15°C?

15,500ft

19,300ft

17.100ft

18,200ft

95 / 124

From when is trip fuel (TIF) calculated?

Start of the take-off roll

Engine start

Achievement of screen height

Commencement of taxying

96 / 124

What is the Reserve fuel figure based upon?

30 minutes holding, clean, 1500ft above the alternate

Contingency fuel minus Taxi fuel

Trip fuel plus Diversion fuel

7% of Trip fuel

97 / 124

What is the maximum value of TODA equal to?

TORA

ASDA

1.5 x ASDA

1.5 x TORA

98 / 124

What is the length of an airfield CLEARWAY equal to?

ASDA – TORA

TODA – ASDA

1.5 x TORA

TODA – TORA

99 / 124

What is the length of the Stopway?

46m

2972m

258m

304m

100 / 124

What is the length of the Clearway?

258m

46m

304m

3230m

101 / 124

Due to significant windshear, a Full Power take-off is required. Which of the following fields must be filled in on the CARD Performance Request?

Performance Correction code 56 and EST TOW

Runway Elevation

Performance correction code 10

EST MACTOW

102 / 124

You have received a CARD datalink error 'PERF CORRS' after uplinking a performance data request. What would be the reason?

Two contaminated runway corrections have been entered

No performance corrections have been entered

The requested performance corrections are not available

An incorrect performance correction number has been entered

103 / 124

Anti-icing will be required in the climbout. What would you enter in the performance request?

Enter 25 (air conditioning off) in the performance correction line to allow for air off take

Enter 01 (anti-ice on) in the performance correction line

Leave the anti-ice box blank

Tick the anti-ice box

104 / 124

The CARD system has not responded to a request. What would you do first?

Reset the Comms system

Get a copy of the take-off data page from the station manager

Use SATCOM to contact Flight Technical Dispatch at LHR

Use the generalised data in the performance manual

105 / 124

What is the Maximum Landing Weight at Athens on runway 03R at 30 flap slippery, zero headwind?

228.6

165.0

208.6

265.0

106 / 124

What is the threshold elevation for Athens runway 03R?

385 ft

271 ft

435 ft

357 ft

107 / 124

The (B) under Rwy 07 at Barcelona indicates that the runway is suitable for an automatic approach, but with which of the following qualifiers?

Available for evaluation

Black beam is required

No roll-out guidance

Available to a disengage height of 100R

108 / 124

Airfield Data for B777-76B at LONDON HEATHROW.
RW 27L FULL LENGTH (DRY) W/V CALM QNH 1010 TEMP +16
oC
(STRUCTURAL LIMIT FOR T/O is 242.7T)What is the Take-Off Performance Limit (TOPL) Weight for this take-off?

260.6

259.7

242.7

210.0

109 / 124

What is the Basic Index of G-VIIA?

782.1

784.0

783.0

18044

110 / 124

What items comprise the Actual Zero Fuel Weight?

Actual Take-off Weight less Trip Fuel

Total Traffic Load plus Dry Operating Weight

Load in cargo compartments plus Dry Operating Weight

Actual Landing Weight less Trip Fuel

111 / 124

How much fuel will be used from take-off on the LHR-DXB sector?

34,092 kgs

59,000 kgs

59,800 kgs

45,000 kgs

112 / 124

What action is required if the letters RF are showing next to a hydraulic system quantity on the status page?

Maintenance action to drain fluid from the associated system in order to bring down the quantity

Maintenance action to add hydraulic fluid to the associated system

Crew action to run the associated system and clear the fault

Maintenance action to re-pressurise the associated systems reservoir

113 / 124

What action would you take with the Cargo Temperature selectors if live animals were to be carried in the bulk cargo?

Aft off, bulk low

Aft high, bulk off

Aft low, bulk high

Aft low, bulk low

114 / 124

Which bus can be powered on the ground only?

Right Main AC Bus

Ground Service Bus

Ground Handling Bus

Left Transfer Bus

115 / 124

What will be the indication against a low (below 0.4) hydraulic quantity on the STATUS page?

Dashes

LO (amber)

RF (white)

Blank

116 / 124

Where is the APU Ground Control Fire Protection Panel located?

At the refuelling Panel

At the nose wheel

Left main gear well

At the rear of the forward access bay door.

117 / 124

What are the memory items in response to the warning STABILIZER?

Stabilizer cut out switches to CUTOUT and do not exceed current airspeed.

There are no memory items for this message

Re enter the weight and cg figures in the FMC

Maintain current trim and airspeed

118 / 124

After completing an Emergency Descent due to excessive cabin altitude, how is the boom microphone reselected?

Close the right hand Oxygen panel door

Close the left Oxygen panel door, then push & release the reset/test switch

Press the Flight Interphone Transmitter select switch

Operate the Mic/Interphone switch

119 / 124

For an in-flight cross-bleed engine start, where is the recommended procedure found? In the .....

FCOM Volume 1 – Normal Operations' section

FCOM Volume 1, 'Supplementary Procedures' section

ECL, Non-Normal 'Air Systems' section

ECL, Non-Normal 'Engines' section

120 / 124

With the BRAKE SOURCE light illuminated, what braking is available for landing?

Accumulator only

Alternate, reserve and accumulator

Alternate, reserve and park brake

All braking except Normal

121 / 124

Where is the Fuel Jettison procedure located?

ECL, Unannunciated and Fuel Sections

Technical Manual

FCOM Volume 1 – Normal Procedures

FCOM Volume 1 – Supplementary Procedures

122 / 124

During a normal Flaps 5 (from 1) extension, the flap indicator turns amber. What does this indicate?

The flaps are operating in Secondary mode

Extension of the flaps may be made using the Alternate system

The flap drive mechanism has failed

The flaps are moving electrically to the 5 position

123 / 124

What is the first action to be taken if airspeed is deemed to be unreliable?

Disconnect the autopilot

Inform Air Traffic Control

Check the pitch altitude and thrust for the phase of flight

Turn off both flight directors

124 / 124

In flight, after two extinguishers discharge into the forward cargo compartment, when are the remaining bottles discharged?

All remaining bottles automatically at 20 seconds after

One bottle manually after 20 seconds

All remaining bottles automatically after a time delay

One bottle automatically after a time delay

Your score is

Boeing 777 Practice Exam B

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