Boeing 777 Practice Exam AHome / Boeing 777 Practice Exam A Boeing 777 Practice Exam A Boeing 777 Practice Exam A 1 / 116 Which key is pressed to extinguish the 'MSG' light on a CDU? The 'CANC' button on the EICAS select panel The adjacent 'Alpha' key The 'MSG' light The 'CLR' key (FCOM2 11.10.3) 2 / 116 Why will the DSPY light on a CDU illuminate? When the aircraft is in a holding pattern The display is not related to the active flight plan leg If the brightness control is at minimum light level When entry of more data is required (FCOM2 11.10.3) 3 / 116 On which page could you compare the Fuel Used by the 2 engines? Descent Forecast Legs, Route Data Progress page 2 Thrust (FCOM2 11.32.4) 4 / 116 What is displayed on the CDU if a waypoint identifier which has more than one geographical location in the database is entered? The SELECT DESIRE WPT page ROUTE DISCONTINUITY An INVALID ENTRY message on the scratchpad The RTE DATA page (FCOM2 11.42.11) 5 / 116 If during the cruise, you wish to display the CRZ page, which key would you press? CRZ VNAV and then next page PROG VNAV 6 / 116 Which FMC page would you use to configure the aircraft for QFE operations? Approach Ref Descent Forecast Nav Data Take off Ref (FCOM2 11.43.17) 7 / 116 How would you remove deletable data from line 3 Right (3R)? Press the line select key 3R twice Enter zero and execute Press the CLR key then line select key 3R Press the DELETE key then line select key 3R 8 / 116 How will the 'EXIT HOLD' facility direct the aircraft to leave the hold? Via the inbound course to the holding fix point By direct intercept to the next waypoint By using the current aircraft heading At the entered EFC time (FCOM2 11.43.31) 9 / 116 What FIRE indications are inhibited during a portion of the take-off? Bell and Master Warning lights All indications except the EICAS message Bell, Master Warning lights and EICAS message Bell only 10 / 116 Which Airports are shown on the ND in Plan Mode? Only those with an Active Runway longer than 1500m None The 4 Alternates, but no others If Airports are not selected, just the 4 Alternates; if Airports are selected, all Airports (FCOM2 11.43.19) 11 / 116 Which type of display is normally shown on the upper centre screen? Secondary engine parameters Status Control surface position EICAS (FCOM2 7.20.2) 12 / 116 On which Display Units are the NDs normally displayed? Lower Inboard Outboard Right hand (FCOM2 10.20.5) 13 / 116 What is the lowest weather minima permitted with a 'NO LAND 3' message and 'LAND 2' annunciated? CAT 3B CAT 1 CAT 3A CAT 2 (FCOM1 SP.30.6) 14 / 116 On a 777 approach in Cat 2 weather the RVR deteriorates after 1000ft but before DH. What should you do? Continue the approach to the DH Carry out an immediate go-around Continue and land Ask the tower for another reading (FCPM 8.1.3.2.12.2) 15 / 116 What is the Maximum crosswind for a Take off requiring PVD for visibility? 5 kt 25 kt 15 kt 40 kt (FCOM1 L.10.1) 16 / 116 What are the instruments that measure runway visual range called? Transmittometers Transmissometers Transferometers Transfogometers 17 / 116 What visual reference is required for cat 3b operations with no decision height? 1 centreline right 3 consecutive elements of the approach light system, including a lateral element None 3 consecutive elements of the approach light system (777 tech study guide Page 77) 18 / 116 Cat 2 and 3 holding points are identified by alternately flashing pairs of yellow lights alternate green and yellow cross bars standard red cross bars only alternately flashing pairs of red lights (777 tech study guide Page 78) 19 / 116 What colour are the taxiway lights from the runway to the edge of the localiser sensitive area? Green and yellow Yellow Green Red and yellow (777 tech study guide Page 78) 20 / 116 For Cat 2 operations, how many elements of the approach light system must be identified and kept in view? 2 including a lateral element 3 including a lateral element 4 no lateral element is necessary 3 no lateral element is necessary (777 tech study guide Page 77) 21 / 116 What happens if the AFT Cargo Fire Arm switch is pushed? Both air conditioning packs shut down The Lower recirculation fans are turned off The timer for the metered bottles arms Two extinguisher bottles immediately discharge (FCOM2 8.10.3) 22 / 116 Following a cabin depressurisation what is the first item on the checklist? Control cabin altitude Select passenger oxygen ON Descend the aircraft Don the oxygen mask (QRH 2.1) 23 / 116 The aircraft requires a ground crossbleed start. Where can the procedure be found? FCOM Vol. 1 – Supplementary Procedures QRH – Normal Checklists Back of the paper checklist QRH – Non Normal Manoeuvres (FCOM SP.7.2) 24 / 116 With slats and flaps retracted, moving the Alternate Flaps selector to EXT results in slat and flap movement simultaneously slat movement only flap movement only slats moving first, followed by flaps (FCOM2 9.20.21) 25 / 116 After the first engine has started normally, there is an APU fire: what then happens? The APU automatically shuts down and discharges the extinguisher The 'APU LIMIT' EICAS message displays The APU only shuts down when the fire switch is pulled The APU shuts down automatically; you must pull the fire switch (FCOM2 7.30.2) 26 / 116 What happens when the Fuel Jettison Arm switch is pressed? The fuel to remain is set to the Max Zero Fuel Weight The main tank jettison pumps operate The fuel synoptic pops up showing the jettison schematic The TO REMAIN quantity replaces the fuel temperature on the EICAS display (FCOM2 12.10.5) 27 / 116 What happens if an APU fire is detected during the 'Initial Cockpit' preparation? The APU shuts down, no automatic extinguishing occurs The APU continues to run, but stops when the fire switch is pulled. The APU shuts down, and automatically fires the extinguisher An APU LIMIT message appears (FCOM2 7.30.2 & 8.20.4) 28 / 116 Autostart fails to start an engine; what is your immediate action? Push the Autostart switch OFF Place the Start/Ignition selector to NORM Place the Start/Ignition selector to START Put the Fuel control switch to CUTOFF (QRH 7.4) 29 / 116 Where would you find the rules for the loading of live animals? Ramp Maintenance Manual Load & Balance Manual Flight Crew Orders (Part 1) Flying Manual, Supplementary Procedures 30 / 116 What will be the indication against a hydraulic quantity of 0.72 on the STATUS page if the system needed topping up? RF (white) LO (amber) Dashes Blank (FCOM2 13.10.3) 31 / 116 Which bus must be powered for cargo loading to take place? Battery bus section 2 The right main AC bus The ground service bus The ground handling bus (FCOM2 6.20.5) 32 / 116 For a final loadsheet to be in 'compliance', what is the limitation on MACTOW? Plus or minus 2% Plus or minus 4% Plus 1000kg to minus 5000kg Plus or minus 6% (FCOM2 11.31.24) 33 / 116 What is the minimum duct pressure required to perform an engine ground pneumatic start? 25 PSI (less 1 PSI per 1000 feet of pressure altitude) 300 PSI (less 1 PSI per 1000 feet of pressure altitude) 30 PSI (less 1 PSI per 1000 feet of pressure altitude) 20 PSI (less 1 PSI per 1000 feet of pressure altitude) (FCOM1 SP.7.2) 34 / 116 How many passengers are in the world traveller cabin? 124 47 5 70 35 / 116 What is the underload before last minute changes? Actual Landing Weight plus Maximum Landing Weight Take-off fuel minus trip fuel Maximum Zero Fuel Weight minus Actual Zero Fuel Weight Maximum Take-off Weight minus Actual Take-off Weight 36 / 116 What is the Actual Zero Fuel Weight for the sector to Dubai? 229,000 kgs 184,000 kgs 177,000 kgs 142,908 kgs 37 / 116 For an actual take-off weight of 220.0 tonnes (using graduated thrust). What is the ASSUMED TEMPERATURE? 66oC 2oC 56oC 46oC 38 / 116 You are landing a 777 with 85B engines on runway 02 at Barcelona which is slippery. There is an 8kt headwind what is your maximum landing weight? 208.0 168.8 200.8 208.6 39 / 116 The (E) under Athens 03R indicates that the runway is suitable for autoland but with which of the following qualifiers? Available to a disengage height of 100R. Roll-out guidance Evaluate Experimental and should not be used (777 tech study guide Page 57) 40 / 116 What does the (15) next to 208.6 in the 30 flap autoland line when using Athens 03L indicate? 15kts of headwind is necessary for Autoland The cross wind limit is 15kts A landing weight of 208.6 is permitted in any wind component up to and including 15kts 15kts of headwind is necessary for landing at 208.6 (777 tech study guide Page 56) 41 / 116 Anti-icing will be required just after take-off. What would you enter in the performance request? Enter 25 (air conditioning off) in the performance correction line, to allow for air off take Enter 01 (anti-ice on) in the performance correction line Select the anti-ice check box Leave the anti-ice check box blank (777 tech study guide Page 32) 42 / 116 In normal circumstances, which V1, VR and V2 figures would you enter on the FMC TAKE OFF REF page? Use the ones given by CARD Use the lower of either the CARD or FMC figures Use the FMC figures Use the take-off data sheets in the performance manual (777 tech study guide Page 39) 43 / 116 If you were carrying out a packs off take-off which of the following performance corrections would you enter? 25 – air conditioning off 70 – air supply and cabin pressure controller inop 42 – two ram air inlet doors locked open 40 – one air conditioning pack inop 44 / 116 The CARD system has failed to give any performance data. What is your next action? Contact Flight Technical Dispatch via SATCOM Look in the Performance Manual for the Take Off data page Obtain a copy of the Take Off data page from the Station Manager Calculate using the generalised data (777 tech study guide Page 31) 45 / 116 What is the length of the clearway? 350m 552m 3444m 202m 46 / 116 What is the length of the stopway? 202m 3242m 350m 552m 47 / 116 What is the Regulated Take-Off Weight (RTOW)? Lower of the Maximum Authorised Take Off Weight and the Take-off Performance Limit weight Maximum permitted Landing Weight + Diversion fuel Maximum permitted Landing Weight + Reserve fuel Maximum Zero Fuel Weight + Trip fuel 48 / 116 At the end of where, are aeroplanes classified in Performance Group A required to achieve V2 and a screen height of 35ft (DRY RUNWAY)? TORA TODA ASDA 1.15 X TORA (777 tech study guide Page 22) 49 / 116 What is the minimum amount of fuel required to be remaining in tanks after landing? Reserve fuel Contingency fuel Extra fuel Diversion fuel (777 tech study guide Page 27) 50 / 116 After when may Contingency fuel first be used? Start of take-off run Push back engine or engine start Reaching top of climb 1,500 ft in the climbout (777 tech study guide Page 27) 51 / 116 After engine failure, what is the level off pressure altitude for an aircraft weight of 260,000 kgs at ISA? 19,300 ft 16,600 ft 18,200 ft 17,100 ft 52 / 116 What is the optimum altitude capability at LRC, for an aircraft weight of 260,000 kgs? 36,800 ft 35,600 ft 33,600 ft 34,200 ft 53 / 116 What is the maximum autopilot disengage height on status B runway? 50 feet RA 25 feet RA 100 feet RA 75 feet RA (777 tech study guide Page 57) 54 / 116 What is Vmo up to 30,000ft? 350 Knots 330 Knots 300 Knots 360 Knots (FCOM1 L.10.11) 55 / 116 What is the maximum fuel temperature? 40 degrees C 52 degrees C 38 degrees C 49 degrees C (FCOM L.10.6) 56 / 116 In flight, how many degrees above the fuel freezing point must the tank temperature be? 3 degrees C 4 degrees C 2 degrees C 6 degrees C (FCOM1 NP.60.8 & L.10.7) 57 / 116 When would the ENG FAIL time critical warning display? 65 knots to slightly below V1 Rotation to 25 seconds after rotation 80 knots to 400ft V1 to 400ft (FCOM2 7.20.27) 58 / 116 For application of the MEL, how is 'dispatch of the flight' defined? When engines started When the aircraft first moves under its own power When cleared to 'line up' At take-off (Part A1 – G&D Page 6) 59 / 116 What is the maximum allowable crosswind speed for a category 2 or 3 automatic landing in the USA? 10 knots 25 knots 5 knots 15 knots (FCOM1 L.10.5) 60 / 116 What is represented by the amber line on the N1 gauge? Maximum thrust Target thrust RPM operating limit Reference thrust (FCOM2 7.10.8) 61 / 116 For which flap settings can automatic landings be made with one engine inoperative? 25 only 20 or 30 30 only 20 only (FCOM2 L.10.5) 62 / 116 At what differential pressure will the pressure relief valves operate? 10.6 psi 5.6 psi 6.8 psi 9.1 psi (FCOM1 L.10.4) 63 / 116 How is the N1 RPM operating limit displayed on EICAS? A grey sector A red line An amber line A green 'Y' plus digital (FCOM2 7.10.5) 64 / 116 What is the maximum takeoff weight for the 'IGW' version aircraft? 190,500 kgs 267,619 kgs 208,840 kgs 273,570 kgs (FCOM1 L.10.3) 65 / 116 With AUTO selected, what happens if one wing anti-ice valve fails closed, when ice is detected? The system will perform a supplementary self-test Bleed air is supplied to the slats via the de-icing relief valve Anti de-icing is automatically re-engaged The system will close the other valve to prevent asymmetric icing (FCOM2 3.20.2) 66 / 116 In equipment cooling override mode, what provides reverse air flow? Aircraft differential pressure Recirculation air fan A dedicated air supply A dedicated cooling override fan (FCOM2 2.20.6) 67 / 116 What effect would a failure of both lavatory/galley vent fans have on the aft/bulk cargo heating system? Aft/bulk cargo heating would be no longer available Temperature selection would be limited to low only The target temperatures would revert to new values of LOW – 5 degrees and HIGH - 12 degrees The target temperatures would revert to new values of LOW – 5 degrees and HIGH – 15 degrees (FCOM2 2.20.4) 68 / 116 Following the manual selection of the landing altitude where is this selection displayed? On the overhead panel Status display EICAS display Air synoptic (FCOM2 2.10.5) 69 / 116 If outflow valve position is not available on EICAS during manual control, how long must the respective OUTFLOW VALVE MANUAL switch be held to move the valve from full open to full closed? 60 seconds 20 seconds 10 seconds 30 seconds (QRH 2.2) 70 / 116 After touchdown, to where does the pressurisation system automatically position the outflow valves? Both to an intermediate position to keep the aircraft slightly pressurised Both fully open Fwd open, aft closed Both fully closed, until selected to MANUAL (FCOM2 2.30.2) 71 / 116 How many outflow valves are fitted to the aircraft? Two, one forward and one aft in the fuselage One, in the aft fuselage Two, in the forward fuselage Two, in the aft fuselage (FCOM2 2.30.1) 72 / 116 What cabin master reference temperature range is available when using the cabin temperature control on the air conditioning? 16 degrees C to 29 degrees C 18 degrees C to 29 degrees C 18 degrees C to 28 degrees C 16 degrees C to 28 degrees C (FCOM2 2.20.3) 73 / 116 If a pack is in standby cooling mode, what will happen if the aircraft is low altitude, high ambient temperature conditions? The pack standby controller will take control of the pack. Airflow will decrease to half rate Airflow through the pack will increase to account for the high ambient temperature The pack will shut down (FCOM2 2.20.2) 74 / 116 What determines the pack outlet temperature? The zone requiring the coolest air The zone with the warmest target selection The flight deck temperature selector Any addition of trim air (FCOM2 2.20.3) 75 / 116 During normal operation what are the positions of the pneumatic system isolation valves? Centre and L open, R closed All open Centre closed, L and R open Centre open, L and R closed (FCOM2 2.40.2) 76 / 116 What FMC parameters are used to calculate stabiliser greenband? CG, gross weight and climb thrust CG, gross weight and takeoff thrust CG, gross weight, takeoff thrust and climb thrust Gross weight, takeoff thrust and climb thrust (FCOM2 9.20.14) 77 / 116 Using the Primary mode, what happens when the aircraft approaches a stall with flaps 5 selected? Slats automatically extend from UP to the down (gapped) position Slats automatically extend from the mid-range (sealed) to the down (gapped) position Slats automatically extend from UP to the mid range (sealed) position No enhancement of the stall characteristics takes place (FCOM2 9.20.22) 78 / 116 When will the PFD bank angle indicator turn amber? When the outboard ailerons are locked out When the bank angle exceeds 35 degrees When the Captain's and F/O's headings disagree When the Bank Limit Selector on the Glareshield is away from AUTO (FCOM2 9.20.15) 79 / 116 Which of the following statements is correct? Alternate pitch trim commands have priority over wheel pitch trim commands in all flight control modes Alternate pitch trim commands have priority over wheel pitch trim commands in Secondary and Direct modes only Wheel pitch trim commands have priority over alternate pitch trim commands in all flight control modes Alternative pitch trim commands have priority over wheel pitch trim commands in Direct mode only (FCOM2 9.20.11) 80 / 116 If the speedbrakes are extended below 800ft RA, which EICAS message is displayed? SPEEDBRAKE EXTENDED Caution AUTO SPEEDBRAKE Advisory SPOILERS Advisory SPEEDBRAKE ARMED Memo (FCOM2 9.30.2) 81 / 116 What happens in the flight control Direct mode? The autopilot will remain available Bank angle protection will remain operating The PFCs operate the ACEs directly The ACEs drive the PCUs directly (FCOM2 9.20.9) 82 / 116 Which of the following will disarm autobrake after landing? Selecting reverse thrust A failure of the left hydraulic system Disengaging the autopilot A normal antiskid system fault (FCOM2 14.20.6) 83 / 116 When will main gear steering automatically operate? Only when using the rudder pedals When the EICAS message 'MAIN GEAR STEERING' is displayed When reverse thrust is cancelled below 60 knots When nose wheel steering exceeds 13 degrees ) (FCOM2 14.20.3 84 / 116 Which of the following systems can be powered from the RAT? Centre system Flight Controls only Landing gear and Centre system Flight Controls only All Centre hydraulic systems Centre system Brakes and Flight Controls only (FCOM 13.20.3) 85 / 116 When is the left engine driven pump hydraulic supply shut off? When the left demand pump is signalled to operate If the left AC bus fails If the left engine fails If the left engine Fire Switch is pulled (FCOM2 13.10.5) 86 / 116 What is the maximum Localiser intercept angle? 80 degrees 120 degrees 90 degrees 130 degrees (FCOM2 4.10.15) 87 / 116 During a VNAV climb, which has priority for altitude capture? The higher of the MCP altitude or FMC target altitude The ALT window or FMC target whichever is reached first The ALT window only The FMC target altitude only (FCOM2 11.31.24) 88 / 116 After takeoff, when will THR REF engage as the autothrottle mode? When LNAV engages When VNAV engages At 50 feet RA At 200 feet RA (FCOM2 4.20.11) 89 / 116 When will the VNAV mode disengage? If Autothrottle is disconnected If FLCH is selected As the LOC is captured When the MCP windowed altitude is reached (FCOM2 4.10.8) 90 / 116 The PFD pitch mode will annunciate VNAV ALT when the aircraft is being held by which of the following? FMC cruise altitude FMC constraint altitude Selection of 'Altitude Hold' mode MCP window altitude (FCOM2 4.10.8) 91 / 116 During climb with the AFDS pitch mode in V/S, what will happen to airspeed if the engines are producing full power but the selected V/S is higher than the current V/S? Airspeed will decrease Airspeed will go to the default value of 250 Knots Airspeed will increase Airspeed will remain the same 92 / 116 With VNAV engaged and the FMC controlling command speed, what will the IAS/MACH window display? Current speed The next speed constraint FMS command speed Blank (FCOM2 4.10.5) 93 / 116 In HDG SEL mode, with the Bank Limit Selector at AUTO, what is the limit? A fixed average value It is dependent on TAS The rate of turn sensed by the IRSs A maximum of 35 degrees (FCOM2 4.10.11) 94 / 116 From where are the ILS receivers manually tuned? FMS CDUs via 'NAV RAD' Radio Tuning panel EFIS control panels FMS CDUs via 'REF NAV DATA' (FCOM2 11.40.30) 95 / 116 An ADF operators on a frequency of 1250.4. What do you type in the FMS-CDU scratchpad to tune it for the BFO reception BFO1250.4 1250.4BFO 1250.4B 1250.4A (FCOM2 11.40.30) 96 / 116 What does the L or R in the bottom right hand corner of the PFD indicate? That the left or right EFIS control panel is the barometric setting reference for the autopilot or flight director That the left or right autopilot computer is the master That the left or right Air Data Module is providing data to the standby instruments That the left or right autopilot is engaged (FCOM2 10.10.16) 97 / 116 Under which condition will be PITCH LIMIT INDICATION be displayed? Below 20,000ft. Only with the gear down With flaps away from UP Below 1,500ft RA (FCOM2 10.10.6) 98 / 116 Vertical speed is displayed digitally on the PFD when vertical speed is greater than 200 feet per minute greater than 400 feet per minute greater than 1000 feet per minute less than 200 feet per minute (FCOM2 10.10.17) 99 / 116 When are flap manoeuvring speeds displayed on the PFD Airspeed indication? Only with gear down At all times When landing reference speed is selected Below 20,000ft (FCOM2 10.10.5) 100 / 116 When does the PFD Radio Altitude indication appear during the descent? 2,500ft 1,500ft 1,000ft 5,000ft (FCOM2 10.10.8) 101 / 116 Where is the procedure for an 'ON GROUND' MANUAL ENGINE START found? FCOM Vol. 1 Supplementary Procedures QRH Non-Normal Checklist QRH Normal Procedures FCOM Vol. 1 Non-Normal Procedures (FCOM2 SP.7.3) 102 / 116 What does the red line on the N1 parameter gauge indicate? Maximum EGT limit Maximum continuous thrust limit Maximum rotor speed limit Maximum rated thrust limit (FCOM2 7.10.5) 103 / 116 With the fuel control switch at RUN, what does the EEC do during an Autostart? It controls the opening of both the spar and engine fuel valves It controls the opening of the engine fuel valve It opens the spar fuel valve It opens the start valve (FCOM 7.20.10) 104 / 116 To select the Secondary Engine display manually, which button on the DSP is used? STAT ENG LWR CTR CHKL (FCOM2 10.10.41) 105 / 116 What information is given by the engine vibration indications on the Secondary Engine Display? Always N1 rotor vibration Only the average vibration of N1 and N2 Always N2 vibration The highest vibration of N1 or N2 is it is known (FCOM2 7.10.19) 106 / 116 Where can the fuel flow rate to each engine be seen? On the Status display On the overhead fuel panel On the Secondary Engine Display On FMC Progress 2/2 (FCOM2 7.10.13) 107 / 116 When a fuel tank imbalance is first detected, how is it indicated? By an EICAS 'FUEL IMBALANCE' message By the FUEL DISAGREE message on the CDU scratchpad By a light on the overhead fuel panel The low tank quantity on the expanded fuel indication flashes (FCOM2 12.10.4) 108 / 116 Suction feed is available from all fuel tanks left main tank only main tanks only both main tanks, but only provided that either crossfeed valve is open (FCOM2 12.20.3) 109 / 116 In flight, what will occur if both AC Transfer buses lose power? The RAT will deploy, and the APU will start The APU must be started manually The APU will start, but the RAT will NOT deploy The RAT can only be deployed manually (FCOM2 6.20.14 & 7.30.2) 110 / 116 If a single IDG is powering both buses, what will occur if primary EXT power switch is pressed with the primary EXT power available? Nothing Primary power will connect to the right bus Primary power will connect to the left bus Primary power will connect to both buses (FCOM2 6.20.3) 111 / 116 Under what circumstances will the right backup generator supply the right main AC bus via the right transfer bus When electrical system splits for autoload After right engine IDG failure Only when the right bus tie bar fails open Never 112 / 116 In flight what is the source of power to the Ground Service Bus, and thus the battery chargers? L main DC bus R AC main bus L AC main bus R main DC bus (FCOM2 6.20.5) 113 / 116 What will happen to the APU in flight if both AC transfer buses lose power? The APU will start only if the switch is in the ON position The APU will start but will stop automatically when power is restored The APU will start automatically regardless of the APU switch position The flight crew will have to start the APU manually (FCOM2 7.30.2) 114 / 116 How is the red box for parameter exceedence on the EICAS display removed/redisplayed? By pushing the Cancel/Recall switch By maintenance action By accessing the appropriate function in the Comm menu It cannot be removed so will therefore not require redisplay (FCOM2 7.20.5) 115 / 116 If PG1 of the alert messages is displayed, what is pressed to bring PG2 into view? Status button once LWR/CTR switch once Cancel/Recall switch once Cancel/Recall switch twice (FCOM2 15.20.3) 116 / 116 EICAS warning messages are cleared from the display by ... pressing the LWR CTR switch pressing the CANC/RCL switch correcting the fault which caused the message pressing the STATUS switch (FCOM2 15.20.2) Your score is