Boeing 777 Practice Exam A

Boeing 777 Practice Exam A

Boeing 777 Practice Exam A

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Which key is pressed to extinguish the 'MSG' light on a CDU?

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Why will the DSPY light on a CDU illuminate?

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On which page could you compare the Fuel Used by the 2 engines?

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What is displayed on the CDU if a waypoint identifier which has more than one geographical location in the database is entered?

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If during the cruise, you wish to display the CRZ page, which key would you press?

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Which FMC page would you use to configure the aircraft for QFE operations?

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How would you remove deletable data from line 3 Right (3R)?

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How will the 'EXIT HOLD' facility direct the aircraft to leave the hold?

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What FIRE indications are inhibited during a portion of the take-off?

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Which Airports are shown on the ND in Plan Mode?

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Which type of display is normally shown on the upper centre screen?

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On which Display Units are the NDs normally displayed?

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What is the lowest weather minima permitted with a 'NO LAND 3' message and 'LAND 2' annunciated?

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On a 777 approach in Cat 2 weather the RVR deteriorates after 1000ft but before DH. What should you do?

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What is the Maximum crosswind for a Take off requiring PVD for visibility?

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What are the instruments that measure runway visual range called?

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What visual reference is required for cat 3b operations with no decision height?

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Cat 2 and 3 holding points are identified by

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What colour are the taxiway lights from the runway to the edge of the localiser sensitive area?

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For Cat 2 operations, how many elements of the approach light system must be identified and kept in view?

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What happens if the AFT Cargo Fire Arm switch is pushed?

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Following a cabin depressurisation what is the first item on the checklist?

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The aircraft requires a ground crossbleed start. Where can the procedure be found?

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With slats and flaps retracted, moving the Alternate Flaps selector to EXT results in

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After the first engine has started normally, there is an APU fire: what then happens?

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What happens when the Fuel Jettison Arm switch is pressed?

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What happens if an APU fire is detected during the 'Initial Cockpit' preparation?

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Autostart fails to start an engine; what is your immediate action?

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Where would you find the rules for the loading of live animals?

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What will be the indication against a hydraulic quantity of 0.72 on the STATUS page if the system needed topping up?

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Which bus must be powered for cargo loading to take place?

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For a final loadsheet to be in 'compliance', what is the limitation on MACTOW?

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What is the minimum duct pressure required to perform an engine ground pneumatic start?

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How many passengers are in the world traveller cabin?

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What is the underload before last minute changes?

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What is the Actual Zero Fuel Weight for the sector to Dubai?

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For an actual take-off weight of 220.0 tonnes (using graduated thrust). What is the ASSUMED TEMPERATURE?

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You are landing a 777 with 85B engines on runway 02 at Barcelona which is slippery. There is an 8kt headwind what is your maximum landing weight?

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The (E) under Athens 03R indicates that the runway is suitable for autoland but with which of the following qualifiers?

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What does the (15) next to 208.6 in the 30 flap autoland line when using Athens 03L indicate?

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Anti-icing will be required just after take-off. What would you enter in the performance request?

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In normal circumstances, which V1, VR and V2 figures would you enter on the FMC TAKE OFF REF page?

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If you were carrying out a packs off take-off which of the following performance corrections would you enter?

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The CARD system has failed to give any performance data. What is your next action?

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What is the length of the clearway?

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What is the length of the stopway?

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What is the Regulated Take-Off Weight (RTOW)?

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At the end of where, are aeroplanes classified in Performance Group A required to achieve V2 and a screen height of 35ft (DRY RUNWAY)?

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What is the minimum amount of fuel required to be remaining in tanks after landing?

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After when may Contingency fuel first be used?

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After engine failure, what is the level off pressure altitude for an aircraft weight of 260,000 kgs at ISA?

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What is the optimum altitude capability at LRC, for an aircraft weight of 260,000 kgs?

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What is the maximum autopilot disengage height on status B runway?

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What is Vmo up to 30,000ft?

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What is the maximum fuel temperature?

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In flight, how many degrees above the fuel freezing point must the tank temperature be?

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When would the ENG FAIL time critical warning display?

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For application of the MEL, how is 'dispatch of the flight' defined?

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What is the maximum allowable crosswind speed for a category 2 or 3 automatic landing in the USA?

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What is represented by the amber line on the N1 gauge?

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For which flap settings can automatic landings be made with one engine inoperative?

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At what differential pressure will the pressure relief valves operate?

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How is the N1 RPM operating limit displayed on EICAS?

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What is the maximum takeoff weight for the 'IGW' version aircraft?

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With AUTO selected, what happens if one wing anti-ice valve fails closed, when ice is detected?

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In equipment cooling override mode, what provides reverse air flow?

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What effect would a failure of both lavatory/galley vent fans have on the aft/bulk cargo heating system?

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Following the manual selection of the landing altitude where is this selection displayed?

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If outflow valve position is not available on EICAS during manual control, how long must the respective OUTFLOW VALVE MANUAL switch be held to move the valve from full open to full closed?

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After touchdown, to where does the pressurisation system automatically position the outflow valves?

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How many outflow valves are fitted to the aircraft?

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What cabin master reference temperature range is available when using the cabin temperature control on the air conditioning?

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If a pack is in standby cooling mode, what will happen if the aircraft is low altitude, high ambient temperature conditions?

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What determines the pack outlet temperature?

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During normal operation what are the positions of the pneumatic system isolation valves?

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What FMC parameters are used to calculate stabiliser greenband?

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Using the Primary mode, what happens when the aircraft approaches a stall with flaps 5 selected?

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When will the PFD bank angle indicator turn amber?

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Which of the following statements is correct?

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If the speedbrakes are extended below 800ft RA, which EICAS message is displayed?

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What happens in the flight control Direct mode?

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Which of the following will disarm autobrake after landing?

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When will main gear steering automatically operate?

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Which of the following systems can be powered from the RAT?

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When is the left engine driven pump hydraulic supply shut off?

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What is the maximum Localiser intercept angle?

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During a VNAV climb, which has priority for altitude capture?

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After takeoff, when will THR REF engage as the autothrottle mode?

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When will the VNAV mode disengage?

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The PFD pitch mode will annunciate VNAV ALT when the aircraft is being held by which of the following?

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During climb with the AFDS pitch mode in V/S, what will happen to airspeed if the engines are producing full power but the selected V/S is higher than the current V/S?

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With VNAV engaged and the FMC controlling command speed, what will the IAS/MACH window display?

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In HDG SEL mode, with the Bank Limit Selector at AUTO, what is the limit?

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From where are the ILS receivers manually tuned?

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An ADF operators on a frequency of 1250.4. What do you type in the FMS-CDU scratchpad to tune it for the BFO reception

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What does the L or R in the bottom right hand corner of the PFD indicate?

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Under which condition will be PITCH LIMIT INDICATION be displayed?

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Vertical speed is displayed digitally on the PFD when vertical speed is

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When are flap manoeuvring speeds displayed on the PFD Airspeed indication?

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When does the PFD Radio Altitude indication appear during the descent?

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Where is the procedure for an 'ON GROUND' MANUAL ENGINE START found?

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What does the red line on the N1 parameter gauge indicate?

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With the fuel control switch at RUN, what does the EEC do during an Autostart?

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To select the Secondary Engine display manually, which button on the DSP is used?

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What information is given by the engine vibration indications on the Secondary Engine Display?

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Where can the fuel flow rate to each engine be seen?

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When a fuel tank imbalance is first detected, how is it indicated?

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Suction feed is available from

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In flight, what will occur if both AC Transfer buses lose power?

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If a single IDG is powering both buses, what will occur if primary EXT power switch is pressed with the primary EXT power available?

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Under what circumstances will the right backup generator supply the right main AC bus via the right transfer bus

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In flight what is the source of power to the Ground Service Bus, and thus the battery chargers?

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What will happen to the APU in flight if both AC transfer buses lose power?

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How is the red box for parameter exceedence on the EICAS display removed/redisplayed?

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If PG1 of the alert messages is displayed, what is pressed to bring PG2 into view?

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EICAS warning messages are cleared from the display by ...

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