Boeing 777 Practice Test C

Boeing 777 Practice Exam C

Boeing 777 Practice Exam C

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How can memo messages be viewed if the EICAS display message area is full with Cautions and Advisories?

2 / 120

What is indicated if STATUS appears on the EICAS display?

3 / 120

When the APU generator becomes available, what will it automatically override?

4 / 120

Which of the following can all be powered from the Ground Service Bus?

5 / 120

When an engine is started, what action is required to connect the IDG to its respective bus assuming the control switch is ON?

6 / 120

What is the inflight priority order for powering the L & R AC main buses?

7 / 120

When does the backup electrical system automatically power one or both transfer buses?

8 / 120

What are the centre tank pump pressures relatively to the main tank pump pressures?

9 / 120

Where is fuel used displayed?

10 / 120

Pushing the Fuel Jettison ARM switch initialises fuel to remain at which of the following aircraft weights?

11 / 120

Which of the following are normally displayed on the EICAS display?

12 / 120

If the engine start/ignition control switch is at CON, when will the ignitors operate?

13 / 120

Which of the following EICAS alert messages has associated recall items?

14 / 120

During Autostart, what will placing the FUEL CONTROL switch to RUN do?

15 / 120

Which statement is true with regard to the EECs operating mode?

16 / 120

Where is the ILS DME distance displayed?

17 / 120

Which of the following, lists all of the ND mode displays capable of showing weather radar returns?

18 / 120

What does the light between the frequency windows on the left Radio Tuning Panel indicate?

19 / 120

With a Heading Reference switch at NORM, what is the reference for the PFD and the ND?

20 / 120

How is the PFD BARO setting normally adjusted?

21 / 120

Which CDU page is used to inhibit GPS from providing FMC position updates?

22 / 120

What message will appear on the CDU scratchpad if a new aeroplane present position entry fails the internal check twice?

23 / 120

Provided it is armed before take-off, at what height should LNAV engage?

24 / 120

In VNAV, with the window altitude set below the cruise altitude, when would the descend now (DES NOW) feature activate with a press of the MCP altitude selector? Within .....

25 / 120

In Flight Level Change mode, what is the annunciation for pitch during descent?

26 / 120

What will happen if the IAS/MACH reference switch is pushed above 0.4 Mach?

27 / 120

When TO/GA is armed, under which of the following conditions would the autothrottle fail to engage with a push of either TO/GA switch?

28 / 120

If the aircraft deviates more than 200 ft from the selected altitude to what colour will the current altitude box on the PFD change?

29 / 120

When is altitude deviation alerting inhibited?

30 / 120

What is the range available in the V/S window?

31 / 120

What action will cause the shutoff valves in the Left or Right hydraulic systems to close?

32 / 120

When selected ON, the Right system Demand Pump operates:-

33 / 120

How is the BRAKE SOURCE light extinguished?

34 / 120

With RTO selected, if the takeoff is rejected at 90 knots, automatic braking will be applied on selection of which of the following?

35 / 120

How are the Primary Flight Computers (PFCs) disconnected?

36 / 120

In which of the following flight control modes is yaw damping available?

37 / 120

Which of the following will occur after several degrees of control wheel displacement?

38 / 120

In normal mode in the air, pitch trim inputs from the wheel trim switches results in:-

39 / 120

Which EICAS message will appear if the primary flight control system is operating in the secondary mode?

40 / 120

What happens to the slats/flaps when secondary mode automatically engages as flap 5 is selected from flap 1?

41 / 120

How is leak isolation achieved following a 'BLEED LEAK' message?

42 / 120

How is cabin temperature controlled if both cabin temperature controllers fail?

43 / 120

From where is the flight deck conditioned air directly supplied?

44 / 120

Why should flight time at low altitude be minimised with the equipment cooling system in the override mode?

45 / 120

When reaching a planned altitude level off which is part of an FMS selected departure, what will happen to the cabin altitude?

46 / 120

How is the target cabin altitude achieved for takeoffs from a field elevation of above 8000 ft?

47 / 120

When the normal cabin differential pressure of approximately 8.6 psi is reached, what is the cabin rate based on?

48 / 120

Which flight deck windows have exterior surface anti-icing protection in addition to window heat?

49 / 120

If the APU Fire Switch remains locked after a fire warning, how can you unlock the switch?

50 / 120

What is the total number of fire extinguisher bottles available for the engines?

51 / 120

When the PFD is providing RA vertical guidance, what should you do?

52 / 120

What is the maximum landing weight for the 'IGW' version aircraft?

53 / 120

What is the maximum Zero Fuel Weight for the 'IGW' version aircraft?

54 / 120

What does the amber band on the PFD airspeed scale indicate?

55 / 120

If the cabin altitude rises above the normal range, how is this initially indicated on the EICAS pressurisation indications?

56 / 120

What is the maximum allowable glideslope angle for a category 2 or 3 automatic landing?

57 / 120

What is represented by the red line on the NI gauge?

58 / 120

In Primary mode, for which range of flap settings is the Autoslat operation armed?

59 / 120

Up to what altitude can APU bleed air be used?

60 / 120

What is automatically displayed on the MFD if the left engine vibration exceeds its predetermined limit during flight?

61 / 120

In which modes does the SLAT load relief operate?

62 / 120

What is the turbulent air penetration speed below 25000 feet?

63 / 120

What position will the slats move to, if you are approaching the stall, with flap 1 selected and Autoslats working normally?

64 / 120

What is the optimum altitude capability at LRC, for an aircraft weight of 290,000 kgs?

65 / 120

After engine failure, what is the level off pressure altitude for an aircraft weigh of 260,000 kgs at ISA +20 oC?

66 / 120

Taxi Fuel is the fuel allowance for:-

67 / 120

What is the Required Fuel (REQ) figure based upon?

68 / 120

V1 must not be less than ...

69 / 120

What is the length of an airfield STOPWAY equal to?

70 / 120

For a departure NOT involving a change of direction exceeding 15 degrees, at what height must obstacles in the Net T/O Flight Path be cleared by?

71 / 120

What must V1 be greater than?

72 / 120

When should reduced thrust take-off data NOT be used?

73 / 120

What error message will appear on the CARD up-link message if an EST TOW was not entered on the CARD DATALINK request?

74 / 120

Intersection take-off performance data is required. What would you enter in the CARD DATALINK request?

75 / 120

If flap 15 were required for take-off, which of the following performance correction codes would you enter in the CARD DATALINK request?

76 / 120

What is the Maximum Landing Weight for Athens runway 03L at 30 flap, slippery, 5kt tailwind?

77 / 120

The (B) under Rwy 07 at Barcelona indicates that the runway is suitable for an automatic approach, with a disengage height of:-

78 / 120

What is the threshold elevation for Athens runway 03L?

79 / 120

Airfield Data for B777-76B at LONDON HEATHROW
oC (STRUCTURAL LIMITED TO T/O is 242.7T)What is the Take-Off Performance Limited (TOPL) Weight for this take-off?

80 / 120

What is the Basic Index of G-VIIA?

81 / 120

What items comprise the Actual Landing Weight?

82 / 120

What action should be taken following the receipt of a 'REVISIONS TO' message due to a change in trim?

83 / 120

What does the letter 'L' on the Zero Fuel Weight indicate?

84 / 120

What is the Dry Operating Index of G-V111A?

85 / 120

When is the Ground Service Bus powered?

86 / 120

How many gear lock pins are there for the 777?

87 / 120

Which figure correctly shows the MACTOW that would be entered into the FMC?

88 / 120

What is the first action to be taken if airspeed is deemed to be unreliable?

89 / 120

What is the correct action in response to the warning FIRE APU?

90 / 120

What is the second action of the Engine Fire procedure?

91 / 120

On the approach, with the BRAKE SOURCE light illuminated, what braking is available?

92 / 120

With Flaps at 20, when RET is selected using the Alternate Flaps selector, which surfaces move?

93 / 120

In flight, what action is required (if any) if the EICAS warning message STABILIZER appears?

94 / 120

Following a cabin depressurisation, you don your mask, establish communications and check the cabin rate. What is your next action?

95 / 120

When is it NOT necessary to press the Engine Fire Override Switches before pulling the Engine Fire Switches?

96 / 120

For Cat 3a operations how many elements of the approach light system must be identified and kept in view?

97 / 120

How far from the end of the runway do the centre line lights change from alternating white and reds to just reds?

98 / 120

An aircraft is making an approach to land in fog. At what point during this approach is a taxying aircraft not allowed into the localiser sensitive area?

99 / 120

On approach below 1,000 ft AAL but before decision height, an RVR change occurs. What is the correct action to take?

100 / 120

An Autoland may be carried out on runways with the following status codes:-

101 / 120

What effect does the use of the PVD have on the landing RVR requirements?

102 / 120

PVD may be used during which phases of flight?

103 / 120

Prior to take off in Low Visibility conditions, the visibility must be checked from the flightdeck. With 15m spacing, how many centre line lights must be visible for an RVR requirement of 75m?

104 / 120

What is cancelled by pushing a Master Caution reset switch following a Caution alert?

105 / 120

On the PFD, where is Radio Altitude displayed?

106 / 120

Which messages can the CANC/RCL switch remove?

107 / 120

When are the Master Warning lights and fire bell inhibited?

108 / 120

You want to view Terrain and Weather Radar information at the same time. How do you do this?

109 / 120

The L INBD Display Selector is at 'EICAS'. What other displays can be selected from the display select panel?

110 / 120

What happens if the EICAS screen fails when the ELEC synoptic is on the Lower Centre MFD?

111 / 120

When you select STA on your EFIS Control Panel, which navaid stations are displayed on your ND?

112 / 120

Which page will be displayed if the INIT REF key is pushed in the cruise?

113 / 120

When the FMC fuel calculations differ from the actual fuel quantity, which message will be displayed?

114 / 120

On which CDU page is an OFFSET routing selected?

115 / 120

What is displayed if the DEP/ARR mode key is pressed immediately after take-off?

116 / 120

In Alternate Navigation, how would you tune the Right VOR?

117 / 120

What will be displayed if a waypoint identifier is entered with more than one geographic location in the database?

118 / 120

You are in the hold. 'EXIT HOLD' is then selected and executed. What will FMS direct the aircraft to do?

119 / 120

You need to report 10 miles short of waypoint ABC. How would you put this point into the FMC?

120 / 120

Which quantity indication is available on STATUS display?

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