Boeing 777 Practice Test CHome / Boeing 777 Practice Test C Boeing 777 Practice Exam C Boeing 777 Practice Exam C 1 / 120 How can memo messages be viewed if the EICAS display message area is full with Cautions and Advisories? They are available to view on the status display By selecting EICAS on the inboard display selector to view two EICAS pages at the same time They cannot By pushing the Cancel/Recall switch repeatedly until they appear (FCOM2 15.10.4 2 / 120 What is indicated if STATUS appears on the EICAS display? The Status display should be switched OFF A new status condition exists Status information is not available The Status page is being displayed (FCOM2 15.10.3) 3 / 120 When the APU generator becomes available, what will it automatically override? The IDG powering the left bus Primary external power on the right bus Secondary external power on the left bus The IDG powering the right bus (FCOM2 6.20.2) 4 / 120 Which of the following can all be powered from the Ground Service Bus? The RAT and the Main and APU battery chargers The RAT, ADIRU and the Main and APU battery chargers The Main & APU battery chargers & miscellaneous cabin & system loads The RAT, ADIRU and Fire extinguishing systems (FCOM2 6.20.5) 5 / 120 When an engine is started, what action is required to connect the IDG to its respective bus assuming the control switch is ON? Any other source will have to be manually disconnected The switch has to be cycled No further action is required Only the APU needs to be isolated (FCOM2 6.20.2) 6 / 120 What is the inflight priority order for powering the L & R AC main buses? APU, respective IDG and then opposite IDG Respective IDG, APU and then the opposite IDG Respective IDG, OR the opposite IDG and then the APU Respective IDG, the opposite IDG and then the APU (FCOM2 6.20.5) 7 / 120 When does the backup electrical system automatically power one or both transfer buses? Power to one or both of the main AC buses is lost After APU start in flight During Go-around Power to the ground handling bus is lost (FCOM2 6.20.8) 8 / 120 What are the centre tank pump pressures relatively to the main tank pump pressures? The same Higher than Less than Less than the main tank pumps until after take-off (FCOM2 12.20.2) 9 / 120 Where is fuel used displayed? On the FMC Progress page 2 On the fuel synoptic display On the overhead panel On the EICAS display (FCOM2 11.42.47) 10 / 120 Pushing the Fuel Jettison ARM switch initialises fuel to remain at which of the following aircraft weights? Zero Fuel Weight Minimum Landing Weight Current Gross Weight Maximum Landing Weight (FCOM2 12.10.2) 11 / 120 Which of the following are normally displayed on the EICAS display? N1, N2 and EGT EPR and EGT N1 and EGT N1 and N2 (FCOM2 7.10.2) 12 / 120 If the engine start/ignition control switch is at CON, when will the ignitors operate? Only during starting Continuously if the fuel control switch is at RUN Only if wing anti-ice is ON At all times (not exactly -- FCOM2 7.10.25) 13 / 120 Which of the following EICAS alert messages has associated recall items? ENG OIL TEMP ENG STARTER CUTOUT ENG FAIL ENG AUTOSTART (QRH 7.4) 14 / 120 During Autostart, what will placing the FUEL CONTROL switch to RUN do? It opens all fuel valves and switches ON the ignitors It arms both the spar and engine fuel valves and the ignitors It opens the fuel spar valve and arms the engine fuel valve and the ignitors It will open the engine fuel valve and arm the ignitors (FCOM2 7.20.10) 15 / 120 Which statement is true with regard to the EECs operating mode? A fault in the normal mode will cause automatic transfer to the soft alternate mode The EEC reverts to a simplified protection schedule that will only provide protection against overboost but not overspeed There is no overspeed protection in the alternate mode There is thrust limit protection in the alternate mode regardless of autothrottle operation FCOM2 7.20.7) 16 / 120 Where is the ILS DME distance displayed? On the CDU 'NAV RAD' page Bottom left or right of the ND in MAP mode Above the PFD heading and track indicator Top left of the PFD attitude indications (FCOM2 10.10.11) 17 / 120 Which of the following, lists all of the ND mode displays capable of showing weather radar returns? MAP, MAP CTR, APP, VOR MAP, APP, VOR MAP, MAP CTR MAP, MAP CTR, APP, APP ATR, VOR, VOR CTR (FCOM2 11.10.12) 18 / 120 What does the light between the frequency windows on the left Radio Tuning Panel indicate? Left panel is switched off Right panel is controlling the right radio Left panel is controlling the left radio Left radio is being tuned by another panel (FCOM2 5.10.4) 19 / 120 With a Heading Reference switch at NORM, what is the reference for the PFD and the ND? Primary True Heading, switching to Magnetic at high altitudes True heading only True or Magnetic heading depending on latitude Magnetic heading only (FCOM2 10.10.39) 20 / 120 How is the PFD BARO setting normally adjusted? Via the FMS CDU On the EFIS control panel On the standby altimeter With the Landing Altitude Selector (FCOM2 10.10.34) 21 / 120 Which CDU page is used to inhibit GPS from providing FMC position updates? POST INIT. POS REF 3/3 PROGRESS 2/3 NAV DATA (FCOM2 11.31.13) 22 / 120 What message will appear on the CDU scratchpad if a new aeroplane present position entry fails the internal check twice? NAV UNABLE RNP INERTIAL/ORIGIN DISAGREE ALIGNMENT REINITIATED ENTER INTERTIAL POSITION (FCOM2 11.40.11) 23 / 120 Provided it is armed before take-off, at what height should LNAV engage? 50ft RA 400ft RA 500ft RA AT acceleration altitude (FCOM2 4.20.12) 24 / 120 In VNAV, with the window altitude set below the cruise altitude, when would the descend now (DES NOW) feature activate with a press of the MCP altitude selector? Within ..... 400 NM of destination 50 NM of the top-of-climb point 150 NM of the top-of-descent point 50 NM of the top-of-descent point (FCOM2 11.31.29) 25 / 120 In Flight Level Change mode, what is the annunciation for pitch during descent? FLCH PTH FLCH FLCH SPD SPD (FCOM2 4.20.8) 26 / 120 What will happen if the IAS/MACH reference switch is pushed above 0.4 Mach? VNAV manual speed selection is enabled It changes the pitch mode to SPD It alternately changes the display from IAS to MACH Altitude constraints are deleted (FCOM2 4.10.6) 27 / 120 When TO/GA is armed, under which of the following conditions would the autothrottle fail to engage with a push of either TO/GA switch? Between 50 knots and 400 feet Between 30 knots and 200 feet Between 50 knots and 600 feet Above 30 knots (FCOM2 4.10.19) 28 / 120 If the aircraft deviates more than 200 ft from the selected altitude to what colour will the current altitude box on the PFD change? Thick white Flashing amber Amber Magenta (FCOM2 15.20.13) 29 / 120 When is altitude deviation alerting inhibited? As the aircraft descends through 1,500 RA When flaps are selected away from UP When G/S is captured If gear is selected DOWN (FCOM2 15.20.13) 30 / 120 What is the range available in the V/S window? -6000 to +6000 fpm -8000 to +8000 fpm -8000 to +6000fpm -6000 to +8000 fpm 31 / 120 What action will cause the shutoff valves in the Left or Right hydraulic systems to close? Switching off the respective systems primary pump Taking the respective Engine fuel control switch to cutoff Switching off the respective systems demand pump Pulling the respective Engine fire switch (FCOM2 13.10.5) 32 / 120 When selected ON, the Right system Demand Pump operates:- only when there is a high system demand only when the engine pump pressure is low only in flight continuously (FCOM2 13.10.2) 33 / 120 How is the BRAKE SOURCE light extinguished? By pressurising the Left hydraulic system By setting the park brake By accumulator charge pressure By pressurising the Centre or Right hydraulic system (FCOM2 14.20.3) 34 / 120 With RTO selected, if the takeoff is rejected at 90 knots, automatic braking will be applied on selection of which of the following? Max autobrakes Reverse thrust selected on both engines Both thrust levers to idle Speed brakes (FCOM2 14.10.2) 35 / 120 How are the Primary Flight Computers (PFCs) disconnected? Manually only Automatically only When flight controls are in the Secondary mode Manually or automatically (FCOM2 9.20.9) 36 / 120 In which of the following flight control modes is yaw damping available? Normal, Secondary and Direct modes The Boeing 777 does not have a yaw damper Normal mode only Normal and Secondary mode (FCOM2 9.20.17) 37 / 120 Which of the following will occur after several degrees of control wheel displacement? Spoilers 5 and 10 will be locked out at low speeds Wheel forces will increase as airspeed increases Spoilers will extend to augment roll control Flaperons will be locked out at high speeds (FCOM2 9.20.14) 38 / 120 In normal mode in the air, pitch trim inputs from the wheel trim switches results in:- a change in trim reference airspeed elevator deflection only immediate stabiliser movement automatic stabiliser cutout (FCOM2 9.10.2) 39 / 120 Which EICAS message will appear if the primary flight control system is operating in the secondary mode? PRI FLIGHT COMPUTERS (CAUTION) PRI FLIGHT COMPUTERS (ADVISORY) FLIGHT CONTROL MODE (CAUTION) FLIGHT CONTROL MODE (ADVISORY) (FCOM2 9.20.7) 40 / 120 What happens to the slats/flaps when secondary mode automatically engages as flap 5 is selected from flap 1? Slats move to mid range (sealed) position, flaps move to position 5 Both slats and flaps stop moving Flaps only stop moving Flaps only move to position 5 41 / 120 How is leak isolation achieved following a 'BLEED LEAK' message? Crew operation is the isolation switches Manually by use of the engine bleed switches Pressing the AIR COND reset switch Automatically (FCOM2 2.40.2) 42 / 120 How is cabin temperature controlled if both cabin temperature controllers fail? Manually by the cabin crew using backup zone valve control By the electrical load management system By the air supply and cabin pressurisation controllers controlling the pack flow control valves By the aircraft information management system (FCOM2 2.20.4) 43 / 120 From where is the flight deck conditioned air directly supplied? Engine fan air The Left pack The Right pack Re-circulated air (FCOM2 2.20.2) 44 / 120 Why should flight time at low altitude be minimised with the equipment cooling system in the override mode? Recirculation fans may not cool equipment adequately Pack outlet temperature may not be sufficient to cool the equipment Equipment and displays may fail AFT and BULK cargo components may overheat (FCOM2 2.20.6) 45 / 120 When reaching a planned altitude level off which is part of an FMS selected departure, what will happen to the cabin altitude? It will decrease by 500 ft and then maintain the altitude It will also level off at its present altitude It will continue to climb at a pre-calculated rate based on time to top of climb It continues to climb at the current rate for 1 minute and then holds until the climb is recommended (FCOM2 2.30.1) 46 / 120 How is the target cabin altitude achieved for takeoffs from a field elevation of above 8000 ft? The cabin descends to the target altitude at a predetermined rate of 500 feet per minute during the takeoff roll The cabin descends to the target altitude while the aircraft is climbing The cabin climbs to the target altitude while the aircraft is climbing The cabin descends to the target altitude when the aircraft is 8000 feet above aerodrome level (FCOM2 2.30.1) 47 / 120 When the normal cabin differential pressure of approximately 8.6 psi is reached, what is the cabin rate based on? The aircraft climb rate A rate selected on the overhead panel The calculated schedule A rate selected on the CDU (FCOM2 2.30.1) 48 / 120 Which flight deck windows have exterior surface anti-icing protection in addition to window heat? None of the flight deck windows All flight deck windows Side windows only Forward windows only (FCOM2 3.20.2) 49 / 120 If the APU Fire Switch remains locked after a fire warning, how can you unlock the switch? Rotate, then pull the Fire Switch Pull the switch with higher than normal force Push the override switch under the Fire Switch 50 / 120 What is the total number of fire extinguisher bottles available for the engines? Four – two dedicated to each engine Two – both of which can be discharged into either engine Four – all of which can be discharged into either engine Two – one dedicated to each engine (FCOM2 8.20.3) 51 / 120 When the PFD is providing RA vertical guidance, what should you do? Stay within the defined red area Stay outside the defined red area Follow the flight director bars Keep the VSI pointer outside the green band (FCOM2 15.10.10) 52 / 120 What is the maximum landing weight for the 'IGW' version aircraft? 253,570 kgs 212,670 kgs 208,652 kgs 195,044 kgs (FCOM1 L.10.3) 53 / 120 What is the maximum Zero Fuel Weight for the 'IGW' version aircraft? 212,670 kgs 195,044 kgs 208,652 kgs 253,570 kgs (FCOM1 L.10.3) 54 / 120 What does the amber band on the PFD airspeed scale indicate? Flap limit speed when flaps extended Vref speed as selected on the CDU is invalid Minimum speed where stick shaker activates Minimum manoeuvre speed margin to stick shaker (FCOM2 10.10.5) 55 / 120 If the cabin altitude rises above the normal range, how is this initially indicated on the EICAS pressurisation indications? The cabin altitude display turns amber The cabin altitude display flashes white By a red box around the cabin altitude The cabin altitude display is shaded white (FCOM2 2.10.7) 56 / 120 What is the maximum allowable glideslope angle for a category 2 or 3 automatic landing? 2.5 degrees 4 degrees 3.5 degrees 3.25 degrees (FCOM1 L.10.5) 57 / 120 What is represented by the red line on the NI gauge? Maximum thrust Reference Thrust Target NI RPM Operating Limit (FCOM2 7.10.5) 58 / 120 In Primary mode, for which range of flap settings is the Autoslat operation armed? 1, 5, 15, 20 15, 20 25 20, 25 and 30 25 and 30 (FCOM2 9.20.22) 59 / 120 Up to what altitude can APU bleed air be used? 16,000 ft 22, 100 ft 43,100 ft 22,000 ft (FCOM2 7.30.1) 60 / 120 What is automatically displayed on the MFD if the left engine vibration exceeds its predetermined limit during flight? Vibration indications only All secondary engine indications for both engines Only the exceeded vibration indication for the left engine Excessive vibration indications are not displayed automatically (FCOM2 7.10.18) 61 / 120 In which modes does the SLAT load relief operate? All modes Alternate only Secondary only Primary and Alternate (FCOM2 9.20.21) 62 / 120 What is the turbulent air penetration speed below 25000 feet? 270 KIAS 260 KIAS 250 KIAS 280 KIAS (FCOM1 L.10.2) 63 / 120 What position will the slats move to, if you are approaching the stall, with flap 1 selected and Autoslats working normally? Gapped Not move at all Up Midrange (FCOM2 9.20.22) 64 / 120 What is the optimum altitude capability at LRC, for an aircraft weight of 290,000 kgs? 33,300 ft 31,200 ft 34,600 ft 31,800 ft 65 / 120 After engine failure, what is the level off pressure altitude for an aircraft weigh of 260,000 kgs at ISA +20 oC? 13,300 ft 16,600 ft 19,300 ft 18,200 ft 66 / 120 Taxi Fuel is the fuel allowance for:- Engine start and taxy Engine start, taxy and APU usage A standard 20 minute taxy time Taxy out and APU usage (B777 tech study guide page 28) 67 / 120 What is the Required Fuel (REQ) figure based upon? The sum of TIF plus Total Reserves The fuel required to hold for 30 minutes The sum of TIF, Contingency, Diversion and Reserve fuel figures 4% of total fuel burn (B777 tech study guide page 27) 68 / 120 V1 must not be less than ... VMBE VR V2 VMCG (B777 tech study guide page 23) 69 / 120 What is the length of an airfield STOPWAY equal to? TODA-TORA 1.5 x TORA ASDA-TORA TODA-ASDA (B777 tech study guide page 22) 70 / 120 For a departure NOT involving a change of direction exceeding 15 degrees, at what height must obstacles in the Net T/O Flight Path be cleared by? 35 ft 1500 ft 15 ft 50 ft (B777 tech study guide page 20) 71 / 120 What must V1 be greater than? V2 VMBE VR VMCG (B777 tech study guide page 23) 72 / 120 When should reduced thrust take-off data NOT be used? On a runway less than 1500m long With a tailwind From an intersection When the runway is defined as slippery (B777 tech study guide page 37) 73 / 120 What error message will appear on the CARD up-link message if an EST TOW was not entered on the CARD DATALINK request? NIL TOW ENTERED MAX ASSUMED TEMP UNAVAILABLE REDUCED THRUST NOT CALCULATED TRY AGAIN (B777 tech study guide page 38) 74 / 120 Intersection take-off performance data is required. What would you enter in the CARD DATALINK request? Enter code 66 – NOT FULL LENGTH Tick the INTERSECTION check box Enter the runway designator followed by /INT in the runway box (e.g. 27L/INT) Leave the SEL line blank (B777 tech study guide page 32/33) 75 / 120 If flap 15 were required for take-off, which of the following performance correction codes would you enter in the CARD DATALINK request? Code 31 – FLAPS FIXED AT 15 Code 60 – OPTIMIZED FLAP Code 48 – FLAPS 15 ONLY Code 82 – FLAPS NOT FIXED AT 5 (B777 tech study guide page 34) 76 / 120 What is the Maximum Landing Weight for Athens runway 03L at 30 flap, slippery, 5kt tailwind? 228.6 208.6 265.0 165.0 77 / 120 The (B) under Rwy 07 at Barcelona indicates that the runway is suitable for an automatic approach, with a disengage height of:- 100R 100 ft AMSL 262 AGL 270 Baro (B777 tech study guide page 57) 78 / 120 What is the threshold elevation for Athens runway 03L? 255 ft 271 ft 357 ft 436 ft 79 / 120 Airfield Data for B777-76B at LONDON HEATHROW RW 27L FULL LENGTH (DRY) 10kt HEADWIND, QNH 998, TEMP +6 oC (STRUCTURAL LIMITED TO T/O is 242.7T)What is the Take-Off Performance Limited (TOPL) Weight for this take-off? 242.7 256.9 261.4 265.9 80 / 120 What is the Basic Index of G-VIIA? 124.0 784.0 782.1 28.0 81 / 120 What items comprise the Actual Landing Weight? Total Traffic Load plus Dry Operating Weight Actual Take-off Weight plus Trip Fuel Actual Landing Weight less Trip Fuel Actual Take-off Weight less Trip Fuel 82 / 120 What action should be taken following the receipt of a 'REVISIONS TO' message due to a change in trim? Enter trim in FMC and re-request CARD performance data Delete FMC takeoff de-rate Enter trim in FMC Take no action until above 10,000 feet 83 / 120 What does the letter 'L' on the Zero Fuel Weight indicate? The TOW has been subjected to last minute changes The allowable TOW is limited by Maximum TOW The allowable TOW is limited by Maximum Zero Fuel Weight It indicates that the passenger load is limited to 124 84 / 120 What is the Dry Operating Index of G-V111A? 782.1 783.0 784.0 809.0 85 / 120 When is the Ground Service Bus powered? On the ground only Only when the switch at door 1L is pushed Only when airborne On the ground and in the air 86 / 120 How many gear lock pins are there for the 777? 4 6 3 5 (FCOM1 NP.30.6) 87 / 120 Which figure correctly shows the MACTOW that would be entered into the FMC? 28.0 25 25.6 28 88 / 120 What is the first action to be taken if airspeed is deemed to be unreliable? Check the pitch altitude and thrust for the phase of flight Disconnect the autopilot Turn off both flight directors Inform Air Traffic Control (QRH 10.1) 89 / 120 What is the correct action in response to the warning FIRE APU? Action the FIRE APU checklist In both attended and unattended modes, verify both bottles have fired automatically On the ground just verify both bottles are discharged In the air just verify both bottles are discharged (QRH 8.1 – no memory items) 90 / 120 What is the second action of the Engine Fire procedure? Fuel Control Switch – CUT OFF Engine Fire Switch – PULL Close the Thrust Lever Engine Fire Switch – ROTATE (QRH 8.1) 91 / 120 On the approach, with the BRAKE SOURCE light illuminated, what braking is available? No braking is available Reserve brakes only Accumulator only Reserve brakes and accumulator (FCOM2 14.20.3) 92 / 120 With Flaps at 20, when RET is selected using the Alternate Flaps selector, which surfaces move? Flaps only Flaps move first, then slats Slats and flaps move simultaneously Slats only (FCOM2 9.20.21) 93 / 120 In flight, what action is required (if any) if the EICAS warning message STABILIZER appears? Correct the control column movement opposing the pitch trim commands Both stabilizer Cut Out switches should be moved from CUT OUT None only one trim motor is being used Both stabilizer Cut Out switches should be selected to CUT OUT (QRH 9.1) 94 / 120 Following a cabin depressurisation, you don your mask, establish communications and check the cabin rate. What is your next action? Select the passenger oxygen ON Summon the Senior Cabin Crew Member Descend the aircraft without delay Set the Transponder to TA only (QRH 2.1) 95 / 120 When is it NOT necessary to press the Engine Fire Override Switches before pulling the Engine Fire Switches? Engine Fire Warning Aircraft on ground Engines running Before V1 and after 400 ft on take-off (FCOM2 8.10.1) 96 / 120 For Cat 3a operations how many elements of the approach light system must be identified and kept in view? 2 including a lateral element 4 without a later element 3 including a lateral element 3 without a lateral element (B777 tech study guide page 77) 97 / 120 How far from the end of the runway do the centre line lights change from alternating white and reds to just reds? 300m 900m 150m 1/3 of the TORA 98 / 120 An aircraft is making an approach to land in fog. At what point during this approach is a taxying aircraft not allowed into the localiser sensitive area? When the ILS approach is cleared Localiser capture Localiser and glideslope both captured 2nm from touchdown (B777 tech study guide page 78) 99 / 120 On approach below 1,000 ft AAL but before decision height, an RVR change occurs. What is the correct action to take? Go around Combine the approach to decision height Adjust the decision height to reflect the new RVR Contact ATC for authority to continue to approach (B777 tech study guide page 75) 100 / 120 An Autoland may be carried out on runways with the following status codes:- E, L. LR B, E, L A, E, L LR only (B777 tech study guide page 57) 101 / 120 What effect does the use of the PVD have on the landing RVR requirements? 150m or above without centreline lighting None 75m or above with centreline lighting Above the minimum for the approach (FCOM1 SP.30.4) 102 / 120 PVD may be used during which phases of flight? Landing only Take off only Take off and landing rollout All phases as long as VOR is tuned (FCOM2 10.20.10) 103 / 120 Prior to take off in Low Visibility conditions, the visibility must be checked from the flightdeck. With 15m spacing, how many centre line lights must be visible for an RVR requirement of 75m? 5 4 3 6 (B777 tech study guide page 79) 104 / 120 What is cancelled by pushing a Master Caution reset switch following a Caution alert? The Master Caution lights and the EICAS message The beeper The Master Caution lights The EICAS message (FCOM2 15.10.5) 105 / 120 On the PFD, where is Radio Altitude displayed? Below the Altitude Tape To the bottom-right of the Altitude Display To the top-right of the Altitude Display In the bottom of the Altitude Display (ATTITUDE DISPLAY???) (FCOM2 10.10.8) 106 / 120 Which messages can the CANC/RCL switch remove? Caution and Advisory only Caution, Advisory and Memo All except Warnings and Cautions Warning, Caution and Advisory (FCOM2 15.10.4) 107 / 120 When are the Master Warning lights and fire bell inhibited? During a part of the take-off When the engines are shut down Until after the gear is selected up During engine start (FCOM2 15.20.47) 108 / 120 You want to view Terrain and Weather Radar information at the same time. How do you do this? This is not possible Select Terrain and one ND, and WXR on the other ND Select both Terrain and WXR on your own ND Select WXR on your ND, and transfer the Terrain information from the other ND 109 / 120 The L INBD Display Selector is at 'EICAS'. What other displays can be selected from the display select panel? STAT, CHKL and COMM ENG, FUEL and AIR DOOR, GEAR and FCTL ELEC, HYD and NAV (FCOM2 10.10.39) 110 / 120 What happens if the EICAS screen fails when the ELEC synoptic is on the Lower Centre MFD? Engine primary indications appear on the Lower MFD in compact form Engine primary indications appear on the Lower MFD in normal format The electric synoptic remains on the Lower MFD Selection of Secondary Engine parameters is not possible t (CBT lesson “Flight deck instruments non-normal conditions) 111 / 120 When you select STA on your EFIS Control Panel, which navaid stations are displayed on your ND? VORs and NDBs VORs, TACANs and NDBs VORs and TACANs VORTACs only ( FCOM2 10.40.13) 112 / 120 Which page will be displayed if the INIT REF key is pushed in the cruise? The IDENT page The ARRIVALS page, if past the halfway point An INDEX page The APPROACH REF page 113 / 120 When the FMC fuel calculations differ from the actual fuel quantity, which message will be displayed? Fuel Low Center Insufficient Fuel Thrust Required Fuel Disagree 114 / 120 On which CDU page is an OFFSET routing selected? ROUTE LEGS ROUTE DATA PROGRESS 115 / 120 What is displayed if the DEP/ARR mode key is pressed immediately after take-off? Departure data for the origin airfield Arrival data for the origin airfield Departure data for the arrival airfield Arrival data for the arrival airfield 116 / 120 In Alternate Navigation, how would you tune the Right VOR? Put the Frequency into the right side of either CDU Put the Identifier into the left side of the Right CDU Put the Frequency into the left side of the Right CDU Put the Identifier into the right side of either CDU 117 / 120 What will be displayed if a waypoint identifier is entered with more than one geographic location in the database? The RTE DATA page The NAV DATA page The SELECT DESIRED WPT page The waypoint closest to the preceding one (FCOM2 11.42.11) 118 / 120 You are in the hold. 'EXIT HOLD' is then selected and executed. What will FMS direct the aircraft to do? Remain on heading at the time of execution Proceed immediately to the next waypoint Automatically leave the hold in heading mode Return using the shortest route via the inbound course to the holding fix before leaving the hold (FCOM2 11.43.31) 119 / 120 You need to report 10 miles short of waypoint ABC. How would you put this point into the FMC? ABC10 ABC-10 ABC/-10 ABCM10 120 / 120 Which quantity indication is available on STATUS display? APU fuel and oil Fuel Potable water Hydraulic (FCOM2 13.10.3) Your score is