Boeing 777 Practice Exam C
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How can memo messages be viewed if the EICAS display message area is full with Cautions and Advisories?
(FCOM2 15.10.4
2 / 120
What is indicated if STATUS appears on the EICAS display?
(FCOM2 15.10.3)
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When the APU generator becomes available, what will it automatically override?
(FCOM2 6.20.2)
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Which of the following can all be powered from the Ground Service Bus?
(FCOM2 6.20.5)
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When an engine is started, what action is required to connect the IDG to its respective bus assuming the control switch is ON?
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What is the inflight priority order for powering the L & R AC main buses?
7 / 120
When does the backup electrical system automatically power one or both transfer buses?
(FCOM2 6.20.8)
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What are the centre tank pump pressures relatively to the main tank pump pressures?
(FCOM2 12.20.2)
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Where is fuel used displayed?
(FCOM2 11.42.47)
10 / 120
Pushing the Fuel Jettison ARM switch initialises fuel to remain at which of the following aircraft weights?
(FCOM2 12.10.2)
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Which of the following are normally displayed on the EICAS display?
(FCOM2 7.10.2)
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If the engine start/ignition control switch is at CON, when will the ignitors operate?
(not exactly -- FCOM2 7.10.25)
13 / 120
Which of the following EICAS alert messages has associated recall items?
(QRH 7.4)
14 / 120
During Autostart, what will placing the FUEL CONTROL switch to RUN do?
(FCOM2 7.20.10)
15 / 120
Which statement is true with regard to the EECs operating mode?
FCOM2 7.20.7)
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Where is the ILS DME distance displayed?
(FCOM2 10.10.11)
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Which of the following, lists all of the ND mode displays capable of showing weather radar returns?
(FCOM2 11.10.12)
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What does the light between the frequency windows on the left Radio Tuning Panel indicate?
(FCOM2 5.10.4)
19 / 120
With a Heading Reference switch at NORM, what is the reference for the PFD and the ND?
(FCOM2 10.10.39)
20 / 120
How is the PFD BARO setting normally adjusted?
(FCOM2 10.10.34)
21 / 120
Which CDU page is used to inhibit GPS from providing FMC position updates?
(FCOM2 11.31.13)
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What message will appear on the CDU scratchpad if a new aeroplane present position entry fails the internal check twice?
(FCOM2 11.40.11)
23 / 120
Provided it is armed before take-off, at what height should LNAV engage?
(FCOM2 4.20.12)
24 / 120
In VNAV, with the window altitude set below the cruise altitude, when would the descend now (DES NOW) feature activate with a press of the MCP altitude selector? Within .....
(FCOM2 11.31.29)
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In Flight Level Change mode, what is the annunciation for pitch during descent?
(FCOM2 4.20.8)
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What will happen if the IAS/MACH reference switch is pushed above 0.4 Mach?
(FCOM2 4.10.6)
27 / 120
When TO/GA is armed, under which of the following conditions would the autothrottle fail to engage with a push of either TO/GA switch?
(FCOM2 4.10.19)
28 / 120
If the aircraft deviates more than 200 ft from the selected altitude to what colour will the current altitude box on the PFD change?
(FCOM2 15.20.13)
29 / 120
When is altitude deviation alerting inhibited?
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What is the range available in the V/S window?
31 / 120
What action will cause the shutoff valves in the Left or Right hydraulic systems to close?
(FCOM2 13.10.5)
32 / 120
When selected ON, the Right system Demand Pump operates:-
(FCOM2 13.10.2)
33 / 120
How is the BRAKE SOURCE light extinguished?
(FCOM2 14.20.3)
34 / 120
With RTO selected, if the takeoff is rejected at 90 knots, automatic braking will be applied on selection of which of the following?
(FCOM2 14.10.2)
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How are the Primary Flight Computers (PFCs) disconnected?
(FCOM2 9.20.9)
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In which of the following flight control modes is yaw damping available?
(FCOM2 9.20.17)
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Which of the following will occur after several degrees of control wheel displacement?
(FCOM2 9.20.14)
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In normal mode in the air, pitch trim inputs from the wheel trim switches results in:-
(FCOM2 9.10.2)
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Which EICAS message will appear if the primary flight control system is operating in the secondary mode?
(FCOM2 9.20.7)
40 / 120
What happens to the slats/flaps when secondary mode automatically engages as flap 5 is selected from flap 1?
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How is leak isolation achieved following a 'BLEED LEAK' message?
(FCOM2 2.40.2)
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How is cabin temperature controlled if both cabin temperature controllers fail?
(FCOM2 2.20.4)
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From where is the flight deck conditioned air directly supplied?
(FCOM2 2.20.2)
44 / 120
Why should flight time at low altitude be minimised with the equipment cooling system in the override mode?
(FCOM2 2.20.6)
45 / 120
When reaching a planned altitude level off which is part of an FMS selected departure, what will happen to the cabin altitude?
(FCOM2 2.30.1)
46 / 120
How is the target cabin altitude achieved for takeoffs from a field elevation of above 8000 ft?
47 / 120
When the normal cabin differential pressure of approximately 8.6 psi is reached, what is the cabin rate based on?
48 / 120
Which flight deck windows have exterior surface anti-icing protection in addition to window heat?
(FCOM2 3.20.2)
49 / 120
If the APU Fire Switch remains locked after a fire warning, how can you unlock the switch?
50 / 120
What is the total number of fire extinguisher bottles available for the engines?
(FCOM2 8.20.3)
51 / 120
When the PFD is providing RA vertical guidance, what should you do?
(FCOM2 15.10.10)
52 / 120
What is the maximum landing weight for the 'IGW' version aircraft?
(FCOM1 L.10.3)
53 / 120
What is the maximum Zero Fuel Weight for the 'IGW' version aircraft?
54 / 120
What does the amber band on the PFD airspeed scale indicate?
(FCOM2 10.10.5)
55 / 120
If the cabin altitude rises above the normal range, how is this initially indicated on the EICAS pressurisation indications?
(FCOM2 2.10.7)
56 / 120
What is the maximum allowable glideslope angle for a category 2 or 3 automatic landing?
(FCOM1 L.10.5)
57 / 120
What is represented by the red line on the NI gauge?
(FCOM2 7.10.5)
58 / 120
In Primary mode, for which range of flap settings is the Autoslat operation armed?
(FCOM2 9.20.22)
59 / 120
Up to what altitude can APU bleed air be used?
(FCOM2 7.30.1)
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What is automatically displayed on the MFD if the left engine vibration exceeds its predetermined limit during flight?
(FCOM2 7.10.18)
61 / 120
In which modes does the SLAT load relief operate?
(FCOM2 9.20.21)
62 / 120
What is the turbulent air penetration speed below 25000 feet?
(FCOM1 L.10.2)
63 / 120
What position will the slats move to, if you are approaching the stall, with flap 1 selected and Autoslats working normally?
64 / 120
What is the optimum altitude capability at LRC, for an aircraft weight of 290,000 kgs?
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After engine failure, what is the level off pressure altitude for an aircraft weigh of 260,000 kgs at ISA +20 oC?
66 / 120
Taxi Fuel is the fuel allowance for:-
(B777 tech study guide page 28)
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What is the Required Fuel (REQ) figure based upon?
(B777 tech study guide page 27)
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V1 must not be less than ...
(B777 tech study guide page 23)
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What is the length of an airfield STOPWAY equal to?
(B777 tech study guide page 22)
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For a departure NOT involving a change of direction exceeding 15 degrees, at what height must obstacles in the Net T/O Flight Path be cleared by?
(B777 tech study guide page 20)
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What must V1 be greater than?
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When should reduced thrust take-off data NOT be used?
(B777 tech study guide page 37)
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What error message will appear on the CARD up-link message if an EST TOW was not entered on the CARD DATALINK request?
(B777 tech study guide page 38)
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Intersection take-off performance data is required. What would you enter in the CARD DATALINK request?
(B777 tech study guide page 32/33)
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If flap 15 were required for take-off, which of the following performance correction codes would you enter in the CARD DATALINK request?
(B777 tech study guide page 34)
76 / 120
What is the Maximum Landing Weight for Athens runway 03L at 30 flap, slippery, 5kt tailwind?
77 / 120
The (B) under Rwy 07 at Barcelona indicates that the runway is suitable for an automatic approach, with a disengage height of:-
(B777 tech study guide page 57)
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What is the threshold elevation for Athens runway 03L?
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Airfield Data for B777-76B at LONDON HEATHROW RW 27L FULL LENGTH (DRY) 10kt HEADWIND, QNH 998, TEMP +6 oC (STRUCTURAL LIMITED TO T/O is 242.7T)What is the Take-Off Performance Limited (TOPL) Weight for this take-off?
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What is the Basic Index of G-VIIA?
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What items comprise the Actual Landing Weight?
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What action should be taken following the receipt of a 'REVISIONS TO' message due to a change in trim?
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What does the letter 'L' on the Zero Fuel Weight indicate?
84 / 120
What is the Dry Operating Index of G-V111A?
85 / 120
When is the Ground Service Bus powered?
86 / 120
How many gear lock pins are there for the 777?
(FCOM1 NP.30.6)
87 / 120
Which figure correctly shows the MACTOW that would be entered into the FMC?
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What is the first action to be taken if airspeed is deemed to be unreliable?
(QRH 10.1)
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What is the correct action in response to the warning FIRE APU?
(QRH 8.1 – no memory items)
90 / 120
What is the second action of the Engine Fire procedure?
(QRH 8.1)
91 / 120
On the approach, with the BRAKE SOURCE light illuminated, what braking is available?
92 / 120
With Flaps at 20, when RET is selected using the Alternate Flaps selector, which surfaces move?
93 / 120
In flight, what action is required (if any) if the EICAS warning message STABILIZER appears?
(QRH 9.1)
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Following a cabin depressurisation, you don your mask, establish communications and check the cabin rate. What is your next action?
(QRH 2.1)
95 / 120
When is it NOT necessary to press the Engine Fire Override Switches before pulling the Engine Fire Switches?
(FCOM2 8.10.1)
96 / 120
For Cat 3a operations how many elements of the approach light system must be identified and kept in view?
(B777 tech study guide page 77)
97 / 120
How far from the end of the runway do the centre line lights change from alternating white and reds to just reds?
98 / 120
An aircraft is making an approach to land in fog. At what point during this approach is a taxying aircraft not allowed into the localiser sensitive area?
(B777 tech study guide page 78)
99 / 120
On approach below 1,000 ft AAL but before decision height, an RVR change occurs. What is the correct action to take?
(B777 tech study guide page 75)
100 / 120
An Autoland may be carried out on runways with the following status codes:-
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What effect does the use of the PVD have on the landing RVR requirements?
(FCOM1 SP.30.4)
102 / 120
PVD may be used during which phases of flight?
(FCOM2 10.20.10)
103 / 120
Prior to take off in Low Visibility conditions, the visibility must be checked from the flightdeck. With 15m spacing, how many centre line lights must be visible for an RVR requirement of 75m?
(B777 tech study guide page 79)
104 / 120
What is cancelled by pushing a Master Caution reset switch following a Caution alert?
(FCOM2 15.10.5)
105 / 120
On the PFD, where is Radio Altitude displayed?
(ATTITUDE DISPLAY???) (FCOM2 10.10.8)
106 / 120
Which messages can the CANC/RCL switch remove?
(FCOM2 15.10.4)
107 / 120
When are the Master Warning lights and fire bell inhibited?
(FCOM2 15.20.47)
108 / 120
You want to view Terrain and Weather Radar information at the same time. How do you do this?
109 / 120
The L INBD Display Selector is at 'EICAS'. What other displays can be selected from the display select panel?
110 / 120
What happens if the EICAS screen fails when the ELEC synoptic is on the Lower Centre MFD?
t (CBT lesson “Flight deck instruments non-normal conditions)
111 / 120
When you select STA on your EFIS Control Panel, which navaid stations are displayed on your ND?
( FCOM2 10.40.13)
112 / 120
Which page will be displayed if the INIT REF key is pushed in the cruise?
113 / 120
When the FMC fuel calculations differ from the actual fuel quantity, which message will be displayed?
114 / 120
On which CDU page is an OFFSET routing selected?
115 / 120
What is displayed if the DEP/ARR mode key is pressed immediately after take-off?
116 / 120
In Alternate Navigation, how would you tune the Right VOR?
117 / 120
What will be displayed if a waypoint identifier is entered with more than one geographic location in the database?
(FCOM2 11.42.11)
118 / 120
You are in the hold. 'EXIT HOLD' is then selected and executed. What will FMS direct the aircraft to do?
(FCOM2 11.43.31)
119 / 120
You need to report 10 miles short of waypoint ABC. How would you put this point into the FMC?
120 / 120
Which quantity indication is available on STATUS display?
(FCOM2 13.10.3)
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