Boeing 777 Progress Test 3
1 / 50
When is a runway considered contaminated?
2 / 50
What is the minimum autopilot disengage height for an approach to a (B) category runway?
3 / 50
When does the APU Fire Switch unlock automatically?
4 / 50
An Engine Fire Switch automatically unlocks for a fire warning; when else does it unlock automatically?
5 / 50
If both engine nacelle Fire and Overheat detector loops have failed, what detection is available?
6 / 50
What is the first action of the APU fire procedure?
7 / 50
Following an engine fire, what is the first recall item?
8 / 50
How would you display ‘DATA’ in the VHF C standby window?
9 / 50
Which VHF radio(s) can be configured for data communications?
10 / 50
When icing is no longer detected by the automatic detection system, how is wing anti-ice turned off?
11 / 50
When the wing anti-ice is selected to ON, the wing anti-ice valves are signaled to open immediately when;
12 / 50
For how long is automatic wing anti-ice operation inhibited after take-off with take-off power set?
13 / 50
When are the Total Air Temperature sensors heated?
14 / 50
When does heating of the Pitot Probes commence?
15 / 50
When will the cabin rate of climb become a function of the aircraft climb rate?
16 / 50
How is the landing altitude selected manually?
17 / 50
With the Pressurisation System in ‘auto’ where does it obtain the information to calculate the Cabin Pressurisation Schedule?
18 / 50
You have selected an Outflow Valve to manual; where does its position information appear?
19 / 50
How is the flight deck temperature controlled with the selector at MAN?
20 / 50
Which display would tell you that a Pack is in Standby Cooling mode?
21 / 50
Where are the indications of Cabin Zone Temperatures?
22 / 50
If the Right Trim Air system is off, what temperature will the Cabin Temperature Controllers try to achieve in all the zones?
23 / 50
During normal flight where can the L & R Duct Pressures be displayed?
24 / 50
When would the Low Pressure section of an engine supply the Bleed Air?
25 / 50
Where is the control panel for the TCAS transponder?
26 / 50
What does an upward pointing arrow on the Traffic Data Tag mean?
27 / 50
How is a Resolution Advisory (RA) displayed?
28 / 50
How will an aircraft that doesn’t have a transponder be displayed on TCAS?
29 / 50
In Primary mode, what happens if the aircraft approaches a stall with flaps 5 selected?
30 / 50
Which surfaces move when extending the flaps using the Alternate mode?
31 / 50
In which Flap Positions is Flap Load Relief armed?
32 / 50
In which mode(s) is Bank Angle Protection available?
33 / 50
When does the Bank Angle Indicator on the PFD turn amber?
34 / 50
In Normal mode, up to what speed is the Wheel-to-Rudder Cross-tie operative?
35 / 50
How will the flaps be affected if the Centre Hydraulic System fails?
36 / 50
What does the EICAS message ‘STAB GREENBAND’ indicate?
37 / 50
In which Flight Control mode(s) does the Rudder Manual Trim Cancel switch work?
38 / 50
In which Flight Control mode(s) do you have Flight Envelope Protection?
39 / 50
Which flap settings can be used for take-off?
40 / 50
Which control surfaces are locked out at high speed?
41 / 50
Which hydraulic system(s) pressurize the Brake Accumulator?
42 / 50
Where are Autobrake selections made?
43 / 50
Which normal braking systems are fitted with anti-skid protection?
44 / 50
Alternate gear extension is initiated…..
45 / 50
RTO is selected on the autobrake system. What will happen if the take-off is rejected at 70Kts?
46 / 50
What type of hydraulic pumps are used in the Left hydraulic system?
47 / 50
With the C1 Demand Pump switch at ON, when will the pump run?
48 / 50
When will a hydraulic pump ‘FAULT’ light illuminate?
49 / 50
How is the hydraulic normal fluid level indicated?
50 / 50
How are the Centre hydraulic system Primary Pumps driven?
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