Boeing 777 Progress Test 3Home / Boeing 777 Progress Test 3 /50 Boeing 777 Progress Test 3 Boeing 777 Progress Test 3 1 / 50 When is a runway considered contaminated? When more than 33% is covered by greater than 3mm of compact snow When more than 33% is covered by greater than 10mm of standing water When more than 25% is covered by greater than 3mm of standing water When more than 25Percent is covered by greater than 3mm of dry snow 2 / 50 What is the minimum autopilot disengage height for an approach to a (B) category runway? Nose wheel touchdown 100ft Radio 200ft Radio 1000ft Baro 3 / 50 When does the APU Fire Switch unlock automatically? When rotating and then pulling the Fire Switch When pulling the Switch with higher than normal force For an APU fire warning When pushing the Master Warning lights 4 / 50 An Engine Fire Switch automatically unlocks for a fire warning; when else does it unlock automatically? When the engine’s hydraulic pump is selected off When the Fuel Control switch is in cut off When the engine’s Bleed Switch is selected off When the generator control switch is selected off 5 / 50 If both engine nacelle Fire and Overheat detector loops have failed, what detection is available? Both loops default to give fire warnings Both loops default to give caution DET FIRE None System logic defaults to FMC DET FIRE 6 / 50 What is the first action of the APU fire procedure? Left Fwd Fuel pump – OFF APU Selector – OFF APU Generator Control Switch – OFF Run the appropriate checklist 7 / 50 Following an engine fire, what is the first recall item? Disengage the Autopilot Select the Autothrottle Arm switch to OFF Close the thrust lever Select the Fuel Control switch to CUTOFF 8 / 50 How would you display ‘DATA’ in the VHF C standby window? By selecting a frequency higher or lower than the allowable VHF range On the Status page By selecting NAV RAD on a CDU and selecting DATA On the SATCOM MAIN MENU 9 / 50 Which VHF radio(s) can be configured for data communications? VHF Left only VHF Centre only VHF Centre and Right VHF Right Only 10 / 50 When icing is no longer detected by the automatic detection system, how is wing anti-ice turned off? Automatically Manually Only at touch down When TAT is 10 Deg C or above 11 / 50 When the wing anti-ice is selected to ON, the wing anti-ice valves are signaled to open immediately when; On the ground and the TAT is above 10°c On the ground and the TAT is below 10°c In the air and the TAT is above 10°c In the air and the TAT is below 10 Deg C 12 / 50 For how long is automatic wing anti-ice operation inhibited after take-off with take-off power set? 5 mins 10 mins 15 mins 20 mins 13 / 50 When are the Total Air Temperature sensors heated? When the Ice Detectors detect an ice build-up When an engine is running When the aircraft is in flight When the aircraft is on the ground 14 / 50 When does heating of the Pitot Probes commence? Once the APU is started After External Power is switched ON After the first engine is started On transition to ‘in-flight 15 / 50 When will the cabin rate of climb become a function of the aircraft climb rate? As soon as cruise altitude is achieved When the maximum differential pressure is exceeded in descent At greater than 400nm, or halfway to the destination When the maximum differential pressure is reached during climb 16 / 50 How is the landing altitude selected manually? By entering it through the FMC CDU By rotating the baro selector on the EFIS Control Panel By selecting the outflow valves to MANUAL By pulling out, and then rotating, the selector on the Pressurisation Panel 17 / 50 With the Pressurisation System in ‘auto’ where does it obtain the information to calculate the Cabin Pressurisation Schedule? From the Transponder(s) From the Left and Right CDU’s From the ADIRU and the FMC’s Via the Data link system 18 / 50 You have selected an Outflow Valve to manual; where does its position information appear? On the Air Synoptic On the ECS Synoptic On the Secondary Engine display On the lower part of the EICAS display 19 / 50 How is the flight deck temperature controlled with the selector at MAN? By manual control of the Left Pack output By increasing or decreasing recirculation air mixing with pack air output By manual control of the flight deck trim air valve for air mixing By opening the Centre Isolation Valve to allow Right Pack air use 20 / 50 Which display would tell you that a Pack is in Standby Cooling mode? Secondary EICAS ENG STATUS AIR 21 / 50 Where are the indications of Cabin Zone Temperatures? On the Overhead Panel EICAS status page F/O’s Panel On the Air Synoptic 22 / 50 If the Right Trim Air system is off, what temperature will the Cabin Temperature Controllers try to achieve in all the zones? 18°c The average Target Temperature 28°c The temperature of the zone requiring the most cooling 23 / 50 During normal flight where can the L & R Duct Pressures be displayed? Air System synoptic EICAS primary display On the overhead panel Left and Right CDUs 24 / 50 When would the Low Pressure section of an engine supply the Bleed Air? When the aircraft is above FL100 When an engine is operating at high power When an engine is operating at low power When the aircraft becomes airborne 25 / 50 Where is the control panel for the TCAS transponder? On the Overhead Panel On the EFIS Control Panel At the aft end of the Aisle Stand On the MCP 26 / 50 What does an upward pointing arrow on the Traffic Data Tag mean? The traffic is more than 500 feet above you You should climb at more than 500fpm to avoid the traffic The traffic is climbing at more than 500fpm The traffic is a TA or RA symbol only 27 / 50 How is a Resolution Advisory (RA) displayed? A filled amber circle on ND Red square on ND Amber band on VSI Amber area on PFD 28 / 50 How will an aircraft that doesn’t have a transponder be displayed on TCAS? As a white diamond with no data tag As a Traffic Advisory (TA) at 6nm/1200 feet to CPA As a normal display, but no Traffic or Resolution Advisories are possible It will not be detected or displayed on TCAS 29 / 50 In Primary mode, what happens if the aircraft approaches a stall with flaps 5 selected? The Slats automatically extend from UP to the down (gapped) position The Slats automatically extend from UP to the mid range (sealed) position The Slats automatically extend from the mid (sealed) to the down (gapped) position No enhancement of the stall characteristics takes place 30 / 50 Which surfaces move when extending the flaps using the Alternate mode? Slats only Slats and Flaps simultaneously Flaps only Slats move Kirst, then flaps 31 / 50 In which Flap Positions is Flap Load Relief armed? 25 and 30 only 20 to 30 inclusive 15 to 30 inclusive 5 to 30 inclusive 32 / 50 In which mode(s) is Bank Angle Protection available? Normal mode only Secondary and Direct modes only Normal and Secondary modes only Secondary mode only 33 / 50 When does the Bank Angle Indicator on the PFD turn amber? When the outboard ailerons are locked out When the bank angle exceeds 35 degrees If the Captains and F/O’s headings disagree When the Bank Angle Limit Selector on the glare shield is away from AUTO 34 / 50 In Normal mode, up to what speed is the Wheel-to-Rudder Cross-tie operative? 270Kts 250Kts 210Kts 330Kts 35 / 50 How will the flaps be affected if the Centre Hydraulic System fails? The Secondary mode must be selected manually The Alternate mode is selected automatically The Secondary mode is selected automatically All flaps fail to move 36 / 50 What does the EICAS message ‘STAB GREENBAND’ indicate? Only one hydraulic system is pressurizing the stabilizer The nose gear pressure switch disagrees with the FMC CG The stabilizer switch is not fully closed The alternate stabilizer lever is not in the detent 37 / 50 In which Flight Control mode(s) does the Rudder Manual Trim Cancel switch work? In both Normal and Secondary Only in Normal Only in Secondary All modes 38 / 50 In which Flight Control mode(s) do you have Flight Envelope Protection? Primary Normal Secondary All modes 39 / 50 Which flap settings can be used for take-off? 5, 15 and 20 1, 5 and 25 5, 15 and 25 All positions 40 / 50 Which control surfaces are locked out at high speed? Only the ailerons Only the flaperons The ailerons and flaperons The ailerons, and spoilers 5 and 10 41 / 50 Which hydraulic system(s) pressurize the Brake Accumulator? Right Centre Left All 42 / 50 Where are Autobrake selections made? On the FMS CDUs By a switch on the centre forward panel By selecting on the overhead panel Automatically, on selection of reverse thrust 43 / 50 Which normal braking systems are fitted with anti-skid protection? Normal brakes only Alternate brakes only Normal, alternate/reserve and accumulator braking Autobrakes only 44 / 50 Alternate gear extension is initiated….. Electro-mechanically Electro-pneumatically Electro-aerodynamically Electro-hydraulically 45 / 50 RTO is selected on the autobrake system. What will happen if the take-off is rejected at 70Kts? The brakes will be applied when the thrust levers are closed Nothing The brakes will be applied when reverse is selected The brakes will be applied when the speedbrakes are deployed 46 / 50 What type of hydraulic pumps are used in the Left hydraulic system? Air-driven and engine driven Air-driven and electrically-driven Electrically-driven and a ram air turbine pump Engine-driven and an electric demand pump 47 / 50 With the C1 Demand Pump switch at ON, when will the pump run? Only during high system demand Any time the engine is running Any time the pneumatic manifold is pressurised Only if the engine driven pump fails 48 / 50 When will a hydraulic pump ‘FAULT’ light illuminate? The reservoir quantity is low Associated pump is selected off The reservoir air pressure falls Pressure is being provided by the primary pump only 49 / 50 How is the hydraulic normal fluid level indicated? 1 A green line The suffix RF indicating ‘reservoir full’ Amber numerals 50 / 50 How are the Centre hydraulic system Primary Pumps driven? Engine only Electrically only Air only Electrically and air Your score is 0% Restart quiz